Please find below the solved Question Paper of Drug Inspector UPSC 2011. Answers are highlighted with “*” sign. You can also download pdf of this paper at the end of page.
1. Assume that for a digoxin, the therapeutic range is cited as Cavg 5.5 = 0.8 – 2 mg/ml. If the patient is assumed to have an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 hours, how long would you wait to take serum digoxin concentration measurement and when during the dosing interval would you schedule it?
a) 28 days then 3-4 hours after the dose is administered
*b) 14 days then 6-8 hours after the dose is administered
c) 7 days then 10-14 hours after the dose is administered
d) 3 days then 1-2 hours after the dose is administered
2. Which drug is used to prevent embolism lungs and also during myocardial infarction?
a) Human growth hormone
*b) Alteplase
c) Epogen (EPO)
d) Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
3. Which enzyme is used by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to form deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the host cell?
a) Restriction endonuclease
b) DNA-directed polymerase only
*c) Reverse transcriptase only
d) Both b and c
4. For two drug products, generic and brand to be considered bio-equivalent, the 90% confidence intervals about the ratio of the means of the Cmax and AUC values are generic/brand product must within
a) 80%-120% of the brand product
b) 80%-100% of the brand product
*c) 80%-85% of the brand product
d) 80%-90% of the brand product
5. The renal clearance of insulin is used as a measurement of
a) Effective renal blood flow
b) Active renal secretion
*c) Glomerular filtration rate
d) Intrinsic enzyme activity
6. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Increases in the particle size of the drug
*b) Use of the ionized or salt form of the drug
c) Decreases in the surface area of the drug
d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug
7. The amount of nitroglycerine that a transdermal patch delivers within 1 24 hour period will not depend on
*a) Occlusive backing on the patch
b) Diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
c) Surface area of the patch
d) Dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
8. A very fine powdered chemical/drug is defined as one that
a) Completely passes through a sieve #240
b) Completely passes through a sieve #120
c) Completely passes through a sieve #60
*d) Passes through a sieve #60 and not more than 40% through a sieve #120
9. Which equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiment at accelerated temperature?
a) The stokes equation
*b) The Arrhenius equation
c) The mickaelis-menten equation
d) The Hixson-Crowell equation
10. In 25ml of a solution for injection, there are 4mg of the drug. If the dose to be administered to a patient is 200fig, what quantity of this solution should be used?
*a) 1.25 ml
b) 0.125ml
c) 12ml
d) 1.2ml
11. The rate of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacological effect is
a) Per oral administration
b) Intradermal injection
*c) Intravenous injection
d) Subcutaneous injection
12. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
a) Soft gelatin capsules
b) Compressed tablets
c) Hard gelatin capsules
*d) Modified release drug products
13. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the
a) Particle size and surface area of the drug
b) Noyes-Whitney equation for the drug
c) Polymorphic form of the drug
*d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug
14. The characteristic of an active transport process includes all of the following except
a) Active transport moves drug molecules against concentration gradient
*b) Active transport follows Kick’s law of diffusion
c) Active transport require energy
d) Active transport of drug molecules may be saturated at high drug concentration
15. In order to determine the absolute bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended-release tablet, the bio-availability of the drug must be compared to bioavailability of the drug from,
*a) An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of the active ingredient
b) A reference (brand) extended-release that is a pharmaceutical equivalent
c) A parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion
d) An oral solution of the drug in the same dose
16. A single dose four-way cross over fasting, comparative bioavailability study was performed in 24 healthy, adult male subjects. Plasma drug concentration was obtained for each subject and following result was obtained
| Product | Dose (mg) | Cmax ( g/ml) | Tmax (h) | AUC0 ( ghr/ml) |
| IV injection | 100 | 1714 | ||
| Oral emulsion | 200 | 21.3 | 1.2 | 3143 |
| Capsule | 200 | 17 | 2.1 | 2822 |
| Reference tablet | 200 | 16.5 | 1.9 | 2715 |
The relative bioavailability of the drug from the capsule compared to the reference tablet is:
a) 82.3%
b) 91.7%
c) 96.2%
*d) 103.9%
17. How many grams of aspirin should be used to prepare 1.250 kg of he given powder?
Powder formula
ASA 6 parts
Phenacetin 3 parts
Caffeine 1 part
a) 125
*b) 750
c) 186
d) 366
18. Which technique is typically used to mill camphor?
*a) Levigation
b) Pulverization by Intervention
c) Geometric dilution
d) Attrition
19. Content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?
a) Bioequivalency
*b) Potency
c) Purity
d) Toxicity
20. The route of drug administration that provides complete (100%) bioavailability is
a) Intramuscular Injection
*b) Intravenous injection
c) Intradermal injection
d) Subcutaneous injection
21. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as
a) Controlled release product
b) Hard gelatin capsule
*c) Solution
d) Compressed tablet
22. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be, minimized by which of the following 1. Adding sodium Benzoate 2. Increasing the viscosity of the suspension 3. Reducing the particle size of (he active ingredient) Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
*b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4 only
23. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
a) Vaccines stimulate activity immunity
b) Vaccines are used for long term prophylaxis
*c) Patient receives antibodies in active immunization
d) Patient produces antibodies in active immunization
24. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Vaccines are antigen containing preparations
b) Toxoids are bacterial toxins modified to destroy or reduce their toxicity
c) Antibody containing preparations are known as Anti sera
*d) Vaccines are used for passive immunization
25. Class 100 clean room is defined as a room in which the particle count in the air is
*a) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 m and larger in size
b) Not more than 120 per cubic foot of 0.5 m and larger in size
c) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 m and larger in size
d) Not more than 99 per cubic foot of 0.5 m in size
26. Which of the following is not used as enteric coating material?
a) Cellulose acetate phthalate
*b) Pectin
c) Acrylase polymers
d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
27. Which of the following cannot be used for buffering of injections?
a) Phosphate buffers
b) Citrate buffers
*c) Borate buffers
d) Acetate buffers
28. Which one of the following chemical/pharmacological classes of agents is incorrectly matched with its nature?
*a) Adrenergic agonist : Basic
b) Prostaglandin: Acidic
c) 4-Quinolones: Basic
d) Meglitinides: Acidic
29. Which one of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution??
*a) Aspirin (pKa = 3.5)
b) Indomethacin (pKa = 4.5)
c) Ibuprofen (pKa = 5.2)
d) Phenobarbital (pKa = 7.4)
30. All of the following statement about first order degradation are true, except
a) Its rate is dependent on the concentration
*b) Its half life is a change parameter
c) A plot of the log of concentration versus time yields a straight line
d) Its 90% is dependent of the concentration
31. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as
a) A water soluble base
b) An oleaginous base
c) An absorption base
*d)An emulsion base
32. Rofecoxib
a) Has a similar effect to diclofenac
b) Provides protection against ischemic cardiovascular events
*c) Is indicated for long term use in osteoarthiritis
d) Can be given to patients with active peptic ulcera-tion
33. Schedule ‘R’ of drugs and cosmetics act would apply to
a) Requirement of factory premises and hygienic conditions for ayurvedic (including sidhha) drugs
*b) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
c) Standard for medical devices
d) None of these
34. An alcoholic solution contains 57.77% u/v alcohol. The strength will be labeled as
a) Over proof
b) Under proof
*c) Proof spirit
d) Proof gallons
35. Probenecid increases serum levels and prolongs activity of penicillin derivative by
a) Plasma protein binding
b) Blocking their glomerular filtration
c) Blocking their tubular secretion
*d) Blocking thir reabsorption
36. In the preparation of calamine lotion, sodium citrate is used as
a) Suspending agent
b) Solubilizer
*c) Buffering agent
d) Bacteriostatic
37. Water which is free from volatile and non-volatile impurities, microorganism and pyrogens is called
a) Purified Water IP
*b) Water for injection IP
c) Sterile water for injection IP
d) Potable water
38. A new drug has completed phase-I clinical trial in USA, the pharmaceutical company wants to do the multicentric, multinational trial including in India) The firm will apply in India to conduct
a) Phase I-trial
b) Phase-II trial
c) Pre-clinical trial
*d) Pharmaolimetric data trial
39. 0.9% w/v sodium chloride has a freezing point depression of
a) -0.50
*b) -0.52
c) -0.56
d) -0.58
40. Sub-coating is given to the tablets to
a) Prevent dissolution in acidic medium
*b) Round the edges and build up the tablet size
c) Prevent moisture penetration in to the tablet
d) Avoid Deterioration due to microbial attach
41. Which one among the following is observed in first order kinetic?
a) Clearance is constant
b) Dose dependent elimination occurs
*c) Rate of elimination decreases with increases in plasma concentration
d) Rate of elimination does not depend on plasma concentration
42. Which one of the following drug is not metabolized by liver?
a) Phenytoin
b) Erythromycin
*c) Penicillin-G
d) Cefotaxime
43. Which one among the following is not an oral third generation cephalosporin?
a) Cefditoren
b) Cefdinir
c) Cefaclor
*d) Ceftibuten
44. Which one among the following statements regarding Placebo is correct?
a) Placebo does not produce any effect
*b) Placebo is a dummy medication
c) All patients respond to placebo
d) Placebo is the inert material added to drug for making tablets
45. Pharmacovigilence is used to monitor
a) Unauthorised drug manufacturing
*b) Drug toxicity
c) Pharmacokinetics
d) Cost of drugs and pharmaceuticals
46. Clonidine is
a) Alpha one selective agonist
*b) Alphha two selective agonist
c) Alpha one selective antagonist
d) Alpha two selective antagonist
47. Mala-N contains
*a) Ethinyl estradiol
b) Morethisterone
c) D-norgestrel
d) Norepinephrine
48. Prolonged use of steroids may cause
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hypotension
*c) Decrease in bone matrix protein
d) Early healing of wound
49. Anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids is due to blocking of
*a) Prostaglandin synthase
b) Thromboxane synthase
c) 15-lipoxygenase
d) Breakdown of phospholipids
50. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification in India is
a) Mandatory for all pharmaceutical industries
b) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of biological
c) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of non-biological
*d) Optional for pharmaceutical industries
51. Good laboratory Practice (GLP) certification is issued in India by
a) Controller, Weights and measure, Government of India
b) Bureau of Indian standard (BIS), Government of India
c) Department of science and technology, government of India
*d) Drug controller general of India (DCGI), Government of india
52. Which one of the following is second generation H1-Anti histamine?
*a) Cetirizine
b) Cinnarizine
c) Pheneramine
d) Promethazine
53. Prostaflandins have effect on a variety of tissues in human body. The different Prostaglandins may have different effects. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
a) PGE2 is bronchodilator where as PGF2 alpha is a broncho constrictor
b) PGE2 has marked oxytoxic action while PGF2 alpha has tocolytic action
*c) PGE1 and PGE2 inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 facilitate aggregation
d) The human anteriolar smooth muscle is relaxed by PGE2 and PGI2, whereas TXA2 and PGF2 alph cause vasoconstriction
54. Which one of the following statements is true regarding NSAID’s?
a) They cause release of histamine
b) They cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
*c) They indirectly increase leukotriene production
d) They cause airway irritation
55. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) Rate of killing of bacteria by antibiotic follows the first order kinetics
*b) The bactericidal effects of Penicillin depends upon its attained C max
c) The antibiotics having time dependent bactericidal effects are given in a large single dose rather than multiply daily doses
d) Aminoglycosides produce bactericidal effect in a concentration dependent manner
56. Which of the following is not a correct combination of drug and its important adverse effect?
a) RIfampicin : Hepatotoxicity
b) Isohiazide: Peripheral neuropathy
*c) Ethambutol: Increased uric acid
d) Streptomycin: Ototoxicity
57. Chemotherapeutic agent, which does not inhibit the microtubule formation is
*a) Paclitaxel
b) Colchicine
c) Vincristine
d) Vinblastine
58. Following antibiotics have been correctly paired to their mechanism of action, except:
*a) Vancomycin-Inhibits synthesis of phospholipids and peptidoglycan polymerization
b) Tetracycline-Binds to 30s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
c) Erythromycin-Binds to bacterial 70s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
d) Ciprofloxacin-Interferes with the action of bacterial topoisomerase II
59. The pharmacokinetics ‘half-life’ of which one of the following resembles to its pharmacodynamic ‘half-life’?
*a) Morphine
b) Terfenadine
c) Isoprenaline
d) Suxamethonium
60. The following properties of a drug encourage its accumulation in breast milk, except:
a) High lipid solubility
b) Unionized state
c) Low molecular weight
*d) Weak acid
61. As per the schedule ‘Y’ of the drugs and cosmetics act, the animal toxicity study requirement for marketing of a drug depends upon tentative route and duration of administration in humans. In the context, which one of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Single dose human use-animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species
b) Oral use for 2 weeks in human-animal toxicity for 4 weeks in 2 species
c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans-animal toxicity in 2 species for 24 weeks.
*d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration irrigation test in 1 species for 3 weeks.
62. In one of the clinical trails of vaccine, there were 6 deaths reported by the media) “You have been deputed by authority to investigate the causality of incidence. Inspection of the following document will be helpful except:
a) Source data
b) Standard operating procedures
*c) Data safety monitoring records
d) Informed consent forms
63. Which one among the following is an antimalarial drug having a metabolite with triazine moiety?
a) Quinine
*b) Proguanil
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Primaquine
64. Which one among the following is an antitubercular drug with hydrazine moiety?
a) Ethionamide
*b) Isoniazide
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Thiacetazone
65. Codeine differ from morphine structurally in
*a) Methaylation of phenolic hydroxyl group
b) Methaylation of alcoholic group
c) Methaylation of nitrogen group
d) Oxidation of phenolic hydroxyl group
66. Tropane system is fusion of
*a) Pyrolidine and piperdine
b) Pyrolidine and pyrimidine
c) Prrole and pyrazine
d) Thiophene and piperdine
67. The local anesthetics exert their action by blocking of the following types of ion channels.
a) Ligand gated sodium channel
*b) Voltage gated sodium channel
c) Ligand gated calcium channel
d) Voltage gated calcium channel
68. Which one of the following statements with regard to the SAARC summit held in Bhutan in April, 2010 is not correct?
a) The summit has held in Bhutan for the first time
b) It was the silver jubilee summit of SAARC
c) The summit recommended to declare 2010-2020 as the ‘Decade of intra-regional connectivity in SAARC)
*d) The summit central theme was ‘Cross Border Terrorism’
69. Which one of the following statements with regard to the right to education act, 2010 is not correct?
a) All children in 6-14 year age group must get free and compulsory education
b) No children shall be held back, expelled or required to pass a board examination till Class VIII.
*c) There must be 25% reservation for poor children even in private schools.
d) Gram Panchayats and Municipal Councils are responsible to look into violations of Right to Education laws
70. Today, surgeons can perform complex life saving operations due to
a) There being emergency facilities
*b) The fact that panned can be kept pain free many hours with anemones
c) Powerful plant extract are available today
d) The fact that operations are done in rare cases
71. The chairman of the investigational new drug (IND) committee in India is
*a) Drugs controller General of India, Government of India
b) Secretary, Department of Health Research, Government of India
c) Directorate General of Health Sciences, Government of india
d) Secretory Department of Biotechnology, Government of india
72. In India, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendation of
a) Indian Council of Medical Research
b) Pharmacy council of India
*c) Drug Technical Advisory Board
d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory Board
73. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect which substance?
a) Leutinizing Hormone
b) Progesterone
*c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
d) Estrogen
74. Which one among the following is/are units of RAM? 1. Giga byte and Mega byte 2. RPM 3. GBPS and MBPS Select the correct answer the using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
*c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
75. If you mix four parts of 40% with 1 part of 90% alcohol you will get
a) 45.7% alcohol
b) 40% alcohol
c) 50% alcohol
*d) 57% alcohol
76. The loading dose (DL) of a drug is usually based on the
a) Total body clearance of the drug
b) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
*c) Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) and desired-drug concentration in plasma
d) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC)
77. The activity if which one of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl-N-alkylpiperidine moiety?
a) Phenobarbital
b) Chlorpramazine
*c) Imipramine
d) Meperidine
78. Flurazepam has pKa of 8.2. What percentage of flurazepam will be ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?
a) 0.1%
b) 1%
c) 99%
*d) 99.9%
79. Recrudescene of malaria refers to the
a) Re-infection of patient my mosquito bite
b) Re-infection by exoerythocytic hypozoites
c) Incomplete clearance of spqrozoites from blood
*d) Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood
80. Which one of the following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
a) Ampicillin
b) Dopamine
*c) Cisplatin
d) Niteoglycerine
81. Prostaglandin plays a major role in the biological activity of proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole and Esomeprazole. The protonation takes place on the
a) Aromatic Methyl chain
b) Bemzimidzole ring
c) Methoxy side chain
*d) The ring that has dimethyl groups
82. The carboxyl group aspirin after esterification with N-acety-P-amino phenol gives
a) 3-acetamidophenl-O-acety salicylate
*b)4-acetamidophenyl-O-acety salicyate
c) 0-(2-hydroxybanzoyl) salicylic acid
d) 2-actamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
83. A prescription order calls for 500 ml 2.0% aminosyn, but the pharmacy has 8.0% solution in stock. How much of the aminosyn 8.0% solution is required to prepare 500 ml of above solution?
a) 120ml
*b) 147ml
c) 125 ml
d) 250 ml
84. Which of the following is/are the symptoms of venous thrombosis? 1. Oedema 2. Lower leg becoming bluish in colour 3. Dry skin Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
*c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
85. Interferon beta 1. Can be administered orally. 2. May cause myalgia 3. Iws used in multiple sclerosis Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
*b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
86. Which of the following is/are the side effect associated with testosterone? 1. Headach 2. Hirustism 3. Gynaecomastia Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
*b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
87. Rosiglitazone 1. Should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease. 2. Should not be used with glicazide. 3. Is a biguanide Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
*b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
88. Iron salts 1. Should always be taken on empty stomach. 2. Should be given by mouth unless are good reasons for using another route 3. In the form of ferric salts are better absorbed than the ferrous salts Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
*b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
89. Doxycycline 1. Is bacteriostaic 2. Is a broad spectrum antibacterial drug 3. May be administered in renal impairment. Which of the above statement is/are correct? Which of the above statement is/are correct.
*a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
90. Testosterone may be used 1. To treat breast and endometrial cancer in females 2. To treat hypogonadism in males 3. To suppress postpartum breast enlargement Which of the above statement is/are correct
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
*c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
91. Following adverse effect are rightly paired with a causative anti-malarial drug except
a) Lichenoid skin eruption : Chloroquine
b) Steven Johnson syndrome : Quinine
*c) Hallucinations :Mefloquine
d) Prolongation of QT interval : Halofantrine
Match the following:
| 1. Schedule V | I. Particulars to be shown in the various records fo manufacture of drugs |
| 2. Schedule T | II. List of drugs which can be marketed under generic names only |
| 3. Schedule U | III. Life period of drugs |
| 4. Schedule W | IV. Standards of patent of proprietory medicines |
| 5. Schedule P | V. Requirements of factory premises and conditions for ayurvedic and Unani drugs |
Which is the correct match?
a) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-V, 5-II
b) 1-V, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
*c) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
d) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-II, 4-I, 5-III
UPSC Drug Inspector Question paper 2011 with Answer Key.pdf
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