GPAT Previous Paper 2019 | The Pharmapedia

1: As per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act and rules, the safe custody of “Forms” is with :

(a) Standing committee

(b) Registered Medical Practitioner

(c) Owner of the approved place

(d) Chief Medical Officer

2. For protein detection most commonly used probe is :

(a) Interferon

(b) Antibody

(c) Lectin

(d) Antigen

3. Consumer who are loyal to two-three brands are considered as :

(a) Split loyals

(b) Switcher loyals

(c) Semi-core loyaLs

(d) Shifting loyals

4. Choose the CORRECT statement with respect to “The Pharmacy Act, 1948 :

(a) Education regulation 1991 dose not prescribe the minimum qualification for the registration as Pharmacist

(b) Section 12 of the act deals with the approval of course of study under chapter 2 there of.

(c) Section 12 of the act deals with the approval of course of study and examination under chapter 2 there of.

(d) State Govt is authorised to make any rules with respect to course of study.

5. ELISA is based upon

(a) Antigen Protein Interaction

(b) Antibody – protein Interaction

(c) Antigen-Antibody Interaction

(d) Lectin – Antibody Interaction

6. The relation between emissive power of the surface and its absorptlvity is given by

(a) Stefan – Bolomann Law

(b) Darcy’s Law

(c) Fourier’s Law

(d) Kirchhoff’s Law

7. In India the patent office has its head office at Kolkata and branch offices at :

(a) Dibrugarh, Indore and Vapi

(b) Kashmir, Ahmedabad and Trivandrum

(c) Chandigarh, Hyderabad and Goa

(d) Mumbai, Chennai and New Delhi

8. Penalty for the cultivation of any cannabis plant to produce, sell purchase transport in contravention of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act and Rules on first conviction is

(a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years or fine up to Rs. 10 Lakhs
(b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years or fine up to Rs. 1 Lakh
(c) Rigorous imprisonment up to 6 months
(d) Fine up to Rs. 10 Lakh

9: In Direct, Contact or Jet condensers, barometric leg serves one of the following functions :

(a) To remove the condensate/cooling water mixture

(b) To measure the pressure difference across the tube

(c) To Heat the liquid feed to ifs boiling point

(d) To transfer the feed in to the evaporating chamber

10: Which of the following is considered as differentiated product ?

(a) Ranitidine (b) Zantac (c) Isoniazid (d) Paracetamol

11: Hardinge mill is a variant of:

(a) Fluid energy mill

(b) Ball mill

(c) Hammer mill

(d) Rotary cutter mill

12. Retention hyperbilirubenamia is caused due to

(a) Choleric jaundice

(b) Non clearance of bilirubin

(c) Reflux of bilirubin into blood stream

(d) Over production of bilirubin

13. What will be the Heat of vaporisation of 1 mole of water, when it has the entropy change (AS) of 35.2 cal/mole.deg (at 25°C) ?

(a) 1.408 cal/ mole

(b) 10489 cal/ mole

(c) 8465 cal/ mole

(d) 880 cal/mole

14. Identify the name of drug with the following structure

(a) Esmolol (b) Betaxolol (c) Metoprolol (d) Bisaprolol

15. The following ACE inhibitor used in treating cardiovascuhr disorder is synthesized from the natural amino acids L-ahnine and L-proline :

(a) Ramipril

(b) Enalapril

(c) Insmopril

(d) Captopril

16. The infra-red absorption peaks of Nujol is due to vibrations involving

(a) S – hstr and S – hdef

(b) S – hstr and 0 – hdef

(c) C – hstr and C – hdef

(d) N – hstr and N – hdef

17. Permitted tolerance limit for a 100mL class B volumetric fhsk and 1000 mL class B volumetric flask according to BS 1792 specifications respectively are mL

(a) 0.15 and 0.80

(b) 0.80 and 0.30

(c) 1.00 and 10.00

(d) 0.15 and 1.5

(a) 237 nm (b) 215 nm (c) 241 nm (d) 240 nm

19. One of the following is a most commonly used protecting group for amines :

(a) Para Methyl benzyl (PMB)

(b) t-Butyloxy carbonyl (t-B0C)

(c) Methoxy methylene (MOM)

(d) Tetra hydro pyranyl oxy(THP)

20. Choose the correct sequence of process during Atomization in atomic absorption spectroscopy

(a) Desolvation —› Nebulization —› Dissociation —› Volatilization —› Ionization

(b) Nebulization —+ Desolvation —+ Volatilization —+ Dissociation —+ Ionization

(c) Desolvation —+ Nebulization —+ Vohtilization —+ Dissociation —+ Ionization

(d) Nebulization Volatilization —› Desolvation —› Dissociation —› Ionization

21. Which among the following carrier gases has the highest thermal conductivity ?

(a) Nitrogen

b) Oxygen

(c) Helium

(d) Compressed Air

22. Phase solubility Analysis curve is not a good tool for :

(a) Complex formation

(b) Bioavailability determination

(c) Polymorph detection

(d) Impurity detection

Identify the named reaction;
(a) Curtius Rearrangement (b) Clemmensen reduction
(c) Wolf-Kishner reduction (d) Wolf-Rearrangement

24. Which of the following inactive clotting factor is activated by the vitamin-K as a co-enzyme ?

(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, V, IX, X (c) II, V, VI, VIII (d) II, VII, IX, X

25. Identify the molecule which will not exhibit Dipole moment ?

(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Chloroform (d) Ammonia

26. The following combination of drugs are used in treating severe travelers diarrhoea :
(a) Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine (b) Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine
(c) Pyrimethamine and sulfamethoxazole (d) Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

27. Reaction of an n-halo ester with an aldehyde or ketone in the presence of a base like NaNH ₂ gives o, b-epoxy carboxylic ester. This reaction is referred as :

(a) Willgerodt rearrangement (b) Bamford steven reaction
(c) Darzen’s glycidic synthesis (d) Bayer villiger rearrangement

28. Amylopectin, a component of starch gives colour with iodine

(a) No colour (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Red-purple

29. Anti addition of bromine to trans-2-butene yields :

(a) Enantiomer and racemic mixture (b) Only racemic mixture
(c) Only enantiomers (d) Only meso compounds

30. Conversion of aryldiamnium chloride to arylchloride can be achieved in the presence of :

(a) Copper (II) chloride (b) Copper (I) chloride
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Calcium chloride

  1. Von Gierke’s glycogen storage disease is due to defect of which enzyme :
    (a) Phosphofructokinase (b) Glucosyl 4 – 6 transferase
    (c) Glycogen phosphorylase (d) Glucose – 6 – phosphatase
  2. The chief product obtained by the reaction of neo-pentyl bromide under E ₁ reaction conditions ;
    (a) neo pentyl alcohol (b) 2-methyl-2-butene
    (c) 2-methyl-1 , 3-butadiene (d) 2-methyl butene
  3. RNA molecules having intrinsic catalytic activity are called as ……………
    (a) mRNAs (b) Ribozymes (c) sn RNAs (d) rRNAs
  4. This semi synthetic derivative of penicillin is synthesized by acylation of 6-APA with p-hydroxy phenyl glycine :

(a) Becampicillin (b) Amoxicillin (c) Ampicillin (d) Carbenicillin

35. Choose the correct product of the following reaction

  1. Oxazole is prepared by the condensation of o-amino carbonyl compound with
    (a) Amino acid (b) Isocyanide
    (c) Aminoether (d) Iminoester
  2. Select the correct order of ortho/para directing ability Of the functional groups from those given below :
    (Strongest first, Weakest last)

(a) — NHCOR > — OH > — C6H5 > I (b) — NHCOR > — NH2 > — C6H, > I
(c) — NHCOR > — NR2 > — C6H5 > I (d) — NHR > — NHCOR > — C₆H > I

  1. Blockade in b-oxidation results in :
    (a) Von Gierk’s disease (b) Scurvy
    (c) Sudden infant death syndrome (d) Taruli’ s disease
  2. The basic ring system present in the antihypertensive and antiglaucoma drug Timolol” is:
    (a) 1, 3, 5 – Thiadiazole and Morpholine (b) 1, 3 – Thiazole and Morpholine
    (c) 1, 2, 5 – Thiadiazole and Morpholine (d) 1, 2, 4 – Thiadiazole and Morpholine
  3. Dehydration of this dicarboxylic acid to obtain corresponding anhydride is difficult due to stereo chemical arrangement :
    (a) Malic acid (b) Fumaric acid (c) Glutaric acid (d) Succinic acid
  4. Which of the following pair of drugs is con sidered as selective o, -Blockers ?
    (a) Timolol and Metoprolol (b) Prazosin and Terazosin
    (c) Formoterol and Levalbuterol (d) Yohimbine and Carynanthine
  5. Calculate the accurate osmotic pressure at00Cof a blood serum sample using Lewis equation
    having freezing point — 053° C
    (a) 0.636 atm (b) 6.39 atm (c) 574.28 atm (d) 0.0441 atm
  1. PM indicators are used in :
    (a) Redox titrations
    (c) Acid-base titrations
    (b) Non-Aquous titrations
    (d) Complexometric titrations
  2. Kinetically X kt/{a(a — x)} is the expression for:
    (a) First order reaction (b) Second order reaction
    (c) Pseudo first order reaction (d) Fractional order reaction
  3. Conversion Of a carbonyl functionality directly to its hydrocarbon in basic media can be achieved by
    (a) Lithium aluminium hydride reduction (b) Ciemmensen reduc lion
    (c) Sodium borohydride reduction (d) Wolf Kishner reduction
  4. Which of the following second generation b1 – selective blockers contains 1, 3, 5 –
    thiadiazole ring in its structure ?
    (a) Sotalol (b) Timolol (c) Penbutolol (d) Pindolol
  5. The structural features present in anti-cancer antibiotics (Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin and Epirubicin) are
    (a) Naphthalene nucleus connected with amino sugar via glycosidic linkage
    (b) Anthracene nuclues fused to cyclohexane ring that is subsequently connected with amino sugar via glycosidic linkage
    (c) Quinoline nucleus connected with amino sugar via glycosidic linkage
    (d) Phenanthrene nucleus fused to cyclohexane ring that is subsequently connected with amino sugar Via glycosidic linkage
  6. When 50 ml of sodium hydroxide (0.1 M) is added to 100 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid, pH of the resultant solution is ……………
    Ka of acetic acid = 1.82 x 10 ⁵

(a) 8.58 (b) 7.42 (c) 4.74 (d) 7.06

  1. Gabriel ring closure method is employed for the synthesis of :
    (a) 1 4-oxazine (b) Aziridine (c) Oxirane (d) Oxaziridine
  1. “Shake well” hbel must be phced on the containers of :
    (a) Opthalmic suspension (b) Occuserts
    (c) Opthalmic solution (d) Opthalmic gels
  2. In case of Aerosol testing. valve delivering acceptance criteria for a volume of 54 mL or less
    (a) + 75% (b) + 5% (c) + 10% (d) + 15%
  3. Containers may be ren dered free from pyrogens by adequate cleaning and by:
    (a) Autochving at 121 °C for 15 minutes (b) Heating at 210 °C for 3-4 hours
    (c) Autochving at 121 °C for 1 hour (d) Heating at 100 °C for 3-4 hours
  1. GMP regulation are pertaining to minimum requirements to be met by industry when :
    (a) Manufacturing, packaging and holding of human drugs and veterinary drugs
    (b) Manufacture of human drugs and veterinary drugs
    (c) Manufacture and packaging of human drugs and veterinary drugs
    (d) Manufacture and holding of human drugs and veterinary drugs
  2. Which one of the following viscometers can be used for characterizing non-Newtonian system ?
    (a) Falling sphere viscometer (b) Cup and Bob viscometer
    (c) Capillary viscometer (d) Hoeppler viscometer
  3. For drug substances with highly variable pharmacokinetic characteristics the following Bioequivalence study design is used

(a) Parallel Design (b) Non-Replicate Design
(c) Non-Parallel Design (d) Replicate Design

  1. Roll-tube technique is the modification of:
    (a) Pour plate technique (b) The streak – plate technique
    (c) Micromanipuhtor technique (d) Spread plate technique
  2. Which mechanism of metabolism of drug is not affected by weight change Of patient ?
    (a) Conjugative metabolism (b) Acetylation metabolism
    (c) Hydrolytic metabolism (d) Oxidative metabolism
  3. 21 CFR part 211 of USFDA describes :
    (a) Current good clinical practice (b) Current good packaging practice
    (c) Current good manufacturing practice (d) Current good laboratory practice
  4. In treating immunodeficiency disease the goal is to maintain lgG levels at about :
    (a) 100 mg/ dL (b) 400 mg/ dL (c) 200 mg/ dL (d) 300 mg/ dL
  5. Which one of the following is the property of micro-emulsion ?
    (a) They have particle size more than 1 micron
    (b) They have poor stability
    (c) They exhibit a viscoehstic gel phase, when internal phase is added in excess
    (d) They have milky yellow colour
  6. The rheological and functional properties of synovial fluid are impaired due to :
    (a) Increase in the content of mucus (b) Decrease in the content of mucus
    (c) Increase in the content of hyaluronic acid (d) Decrease in the content of hyaluronic acid
  7. Movement of charged particle through a liquid under the influence of an applied potential difference is known as
    (a) Sedimentation Potential (b) Streaming Potential
    (c) Electrophoresis (d) Electroosmosis
  8. As per US FDA, NDA’s for new chemical entitles are chssified as either :
    (a) ‘P’ for product review or ‘S’ for standard review
    (b) “P’ for priority review or ‘S’ for standard review
    (c) ‘P’ for product review or ‘S’ for safety review
    (d) ‘P’ for priority review or ‘S’ for safety review
  1. In preformulation study polymorphs can be detected by
    (a) Counter – current chromatography (b) Retractometry
    (c) High performance liquid chromatography (d) Differential scanning
  2. The following is/are used to determine the amount of drug bound to a protein:
    (a) Equilibrium dialysis (b) Solubility (c) pH titration (d) Distribution method
  3. In tablet, hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose is used as :
    (a) Diluent (b) Film former (c) Disintegrant (d) Binder
  4. Dakin’s solution is a synonym for :

(a) Ammonium Acetate solution (b) Chlorinated soda solution
(c) Chloroxylenlol solution (d) Aluminium Acetate solution

  1. MEDLINE, EMBASE, EBM AND IDIs are :
    (a) Drug databases (b) New compendial specification of drugs
    (c) Chronicles of drug standards (d) Source for drug patents
  2. Theories of emulsification are characterized by one of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) Film forma lion (b) Phase inversion
    (c) Monomolecular adsorp Lion (d) Solid particle adsorption
  3. When two brands of a drug product gives same clinical results, it is termed as :
    (a) Therapeutic equivalence (b) Bio equivalence
    (c) Pharmaceutical equivalence (d) Clinical equivalence
  4. Soda ash is also known as :
    (a) Lime stone (b) Sodium carbonate (c) Pure silica (d) Calcium carbonate
  5. Microcrystalline cellulose is also called as :
    (a) Sugar tab (b) Nutab (c) Emdex (d) Avicel
  6. Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding bulkiness ?
    (a) The reciprocal of bulk density is bulkiness
    (b) Bulkiest substance will require container hrger than required for less bulky substance
    (c) Smaller particles shift between hrger ones and increases bulkiness
    (d) Bulkiness increases with decrease in particle size
  7. Amixture of emulsifier A and emulsifier B with values of 4 and 14 respectively are to be
    mixed in a proportion to get mixture with required HLB 12. What is the weight of individual
    emulsifier that is to be taken to have a total weight of 7 gm ?
    (a) A = 5.8 gm and B = 1.2 gm (b) A = 1.4 gm and B = 5.6 gm
    (c) A = 5.6 gm and B = 1.4 gm (d) A = 1.2 gm and B = 5.8 gm
  8. Which of the following oxide is not used for achieving Amber color to glass ?
    (a) Manganese (b) Iron (c) Cobalt (d) Carbon
  1. In case of suppositories base, SFI stands for :
    (a) Solidified Fatty acid Indices (b) Solid Fluid Indices
    (c) Solidified Fatty acid Incline (d) Solid Fat Index
  2. If mean volume — number diameter of a powdered sample is 2.41pm, density is 3 gm/cm3, the number of particles/gm will be .
    (a) 538 x 1010 (b) 3.68 x 1010 (c)4.55 x 1010 (d) 4.70 x 1010
  3. Which polymorphic form of a drug candidate has highest melting point :
    (a) Unstable (b) Metastable (c) Hydrates (d) Stable
  4. For bitter drugs in paediatric formulations, excellent fhvouring agent will be.
    (a) Raspberry syrup (b) Orange syrup (c) Lemon syrup (d) Black current syrup
    81 The co-administration of erythromycin with cyclosporine :
    (a) Increase bioavailability, due to inhibition of hepatic metabolism
    (b) Increase bioavaihbility, due to inhibition of microflora in intestine
    (c) Decrease bioavailability due to complex formation
    (d) Decrease bioavailability, due to induction of hepatic metabolism
  5. Essentially Hospital Formulary system provide mechanism to :
    (a) Streamline prescription writing (b) Improve quality and hygenicity of food
    (c) Avoid brand and therapeutic duplication (d) Improve surgical procedures
  6. Volume of blood that flows per unit time per unit volume of the tissue is :
    (a) Residence time (b) Elimination rate (c) Gastric emptying rate (d) Perfusion rate
  7. Leaching by immersion Of crude material in a solvent is also known as :
    (a) Maceration (b) Precipitation (c) Evaporation (d) Crystallization
  8. The protein toxins that have been modified to reduce the toxicity without significantly
    altering the immunogenicity are known as :

(a) Sera (b) Antisera (c) Toxoids

  1. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for achieving gastroretention ?
    (a) Osmosis (b) Floating (c) Mucoadhesion (d) Swelling
  2. The phase contrast microscopy is valuable in studying living cells which are
    (a) Stained (b) Unstained
    (c) Treated with fluorescent dye (d) Treated with fluorescent antibody
  1. The size Of Lycopodium spores is :
    (a) 45 μm (b) 15 μm (c) 35 μm (d) 25 μm
  2. Regholarrhenines A-F have been isolated from :

(a) Veratrums (b) Areca (c) Aconite (d) Kurchi

  1. Pungency of Zingiber officinal e rhizome is due to the presence of :

    (a) Citral (b) Gingerol (c) Commiphoric acid (d) Gingeral
  1. The principal cultivation areas of pyrethrum flowers are in –
    (a) Sri Lanka (b) Malaysia (c) India (d) Kenya
  2. In Cassia angustifolia short-term drought :
    (a) Increases the concentration of sennosides A + B
    (b) Decreases the concentration of sennosides A + B
    (c) Causes loss of leaf biomass
    (d) Causes death of the plant
  3. The Glycoside Scilliroside in red sqrill acts as :
    (a) Insecticide (b) Rodenticide (c) Acaricide (d) Molluscide
  4. Shellac is a resinous substance pr4vtred from a secretion that encrusts the
    bodies of a scale insect :
    (a) Viverra civet (b) Karria lacca (c) Acipenser huso (d) Alverites moschiferus
  5. All members of this order are trees or shrubs; mostly evergreen with needle – like leaves ;
    monoecious or dioecious – sporophylls usually in cones. Resin ducts occur in all parts :
    (a) Cycadales (b) Ginkgoales (c) Taxales (d) Coniferae
  6. In Gambir – fluorescin test the petroleum spirit hyer shows a strong :
    (a) Green fluorescence (b) Blue fluorescence
    (c) Yellow fluorescence (d) Red fluorescence
  7. Antiviral action of Neem in due to :
    (a) Kaemferol (b) Nehnin (c) Nimbin (d) Azadirachitin
  1. Characteristic micrncapic features observed in Alzheimer’s disease is:
    (a) Epidural haemoregic patches
    (b) Depigmentation of substantia nigra
    (c) Demyelination of neurons in spinal cord
    (d) Presence of neutritic plaques containing Ab-amyloid
  2. Cardiac output is:
    (a) Volume of blood ejected by the auride per minute
    (b) Volume of the blood ejected by the left ventricle per beat
    (c) Volume of the blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute
    (d) Volume of blood ejected by the auricles per beat
  3. What are sutures?
    (a) Cartilaginous joints (b) Non fibrous joints
    (c) Synovial joints (d) Fibrous joints of the skull
  4. Following are the facts regarding clinical applications of muscarinic receptor blocking drugs.
    Identify the false statement
    (a) Used in the treatment of parkinson’s disease is often an excercise in polypharmacy, since no single agent is fully effective.
    (b) Marked reflex vagal discharge may stimulate sinoatrial oratrioventricular node to improve cardiac output
    (c) Mydriasis produced greatly facilitates opthalmoscopic examination of the retina and measurement of refractive error in uncooperative patient.
    (d) Scopohmine is one among the old remedies used to treat sea-sickness
  1. Which of the following cells are called scavenger cells?

(a) Neutrophils (b) Natural killer cells (c) Marcrophages (d) Mast cells

  1. Which is NOT true about calcitriol?
    (a) It is active form of Vit D₃
    (b) It enhances reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from bone
    (c) It prevents tubuhr reabsorption of calcium and phosphate
    (d) Enhances absorption of calcium and phosphate from intestine
  2. Production of an abnormal lgG immunoglohulin in Grave’s disease causes:
    (a) Multinodular goitre (b) Hypothyroidism
    (c) Thyrotoxicosis (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Metabolic acidosis does NOT occur during :
    (a) Starvation (b) Chronic renal failure (c) Wound healing (d) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
  1. Glucocorticoids have following effects – EXCEPT:

    (a) Stimulation of immune responses (b) Resistance to stress
    (c) Lipolysis (d) Protein breakdown and glucose formation
  2. Which one of the following is NOT’ the role of Nitric oxide?
    (a) Reliving vascuhr smooth muscle
    (b) Mediating microbicidal action of macrophages
    (c) Serving as neurotransmitter in CNS
    (d) Inducing platelet aggregation
  3. Identify the drug which is not useful in the treatment of tuberculosis:
    (a) Pyrazinamide (b) Gentamicin (c) Streptomycin (d) Ciprofloxacin
  4. What is anaplasia?
    (a) Morphological and functional alterations/changes, that are different from normal cells
    (b) Morphological and functional resembhnce to normal cells
    (c) Increase in size of cell
    (d) Lack of growth of cells
  5. Match the following liver abnormalities with consequences:
    (a) Steatosis (M) Raised hiliruhin hvel
    (b) Cholestasis (N) Slight rise in serum transaminase level
    (c) Hepatitis (O) Accumuhtion of fat droplets within liver cells
    (d) Fibrosis (P) lilevated liver function test (LFT’s)
    (a) (a) – (N), (b) — (P), (c)- (M), (d)- (0) (b) (a) – (0), (b) — (M), (c)- (P), (d)- (N)
    (c) (a) – (N), (b) — (0), (c)- (P), (d)- (M) (d) (a) – (P), (b) — (0), (c)- (N), (d)- (M)
  1. Numerous isomers of human liver P450 enzyme have been identified, it is not worthy that
    alone is responsible for the metabolism of over 55% of the prescription drugs metabolized
    by liver.
    (a) CYP3A4 (b) CYPIA2 (c) CYP1A11 (d) CYP2B6
  2. Which of the following directly inhibits Factor Xa?
    (a) Dabigatran (b) Warfarin (c) Bivalirudin (d) Rivaroxahan
  3. Which of the following anticonvulsants have both inhibition of excitatory glutamatergic synapse and facilitation of GABA mediated Cl channel opening action?

(a) Valproate (b) Ethosuximide (c) Topiramate (d) Phenytoin

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cardioselective b blocker?
    (a) Bisoprolol (b) Nebivolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Pindolol
  2. The term ‘aneurysm’ refers to:
    (a) Permanent blockage of blood vessels
    (b) Permanent abnormal dilatation of blood vessel
    (c) Abnormal connections in blood vessels
    (d) Abnormal growth of neurones near blood vessels
  3. The antiemetic activity of glycopyrronium is related to potent inhibition of ………..
    receptor both peripherally and centrally.

(a) 5HT₃ (b) D₂ (c) M1 (d) H1

  1. Identify the false statement about benzodiazepines from the following:
    (a) Benzodiazepines cause reduction of anxiety
    (b) Benzodiazepines cause convulsions
    (c) Benzodiazepines produce muscle relaxation and loss of motor co-ordination
    (d) Benzodiazepines are useful in insomnia
  2. Which of the following is 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?
    (a) Glichzide (b) Sildenafil (c) Finasteride (d) Polvthiazide
  3. Several different chemicals released by microbes and infhmed tissues attract phagocytes, this phenomenon is called as ………….

(a) Phagocytosis (b) Integrins (c) Chemotaxis (d) Emigration

  1. Hematocrit 65% to 70% indicates:

    (a) Hemophilia (b) Polycythemia (c) Hypoxia (d) Anaemia
  2. The adverse reaction associated with a-2 agonists administered by inhahtion or nebulisation in the management of asthma does not include …………..
    (a) Peripheral vasodilation (b) Hypertension
    (c) Tachvcardia (d) Fine tremor
  3. Select the ulcer protective drug from the following:
    (a) Oxyphenonium (b) Metronidazole (c) Misoprostol (d) Sucralfate
  4. Disturbances of oestrogen/progesterone balance could cause a rehtive deficiency of leading to disturbances in production of dopamine and serotonin. This contributes for emotional disturbances and depression.
    (a) Enzyme decarboxyhse (b) Tvrosine (c) Pyridoxine phosphate (d) Co-factor A
  1. Testing of chemicals by OECD guideline No. 420 refers to which of the following:
    (a) Ate oral toxicity by acute toxic class method
    (b) Acute oral toxicity by up and Down procedure
    (c) Repeated dose 28-day toxicity study in rodents
    (d) Acute oral toxicity by fixed dose procedure
  2. Which of the following is true? Excessive use of diuretics can lead to:

(a) Hypervolemic shock
(c) Hypovolemic shock
(b) Neurogenic shock
(d) Cardiogenic shock


1 As per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act and rules, the safe custody of “Forms” is with :

(a) Standing committee

(b) Registered Medical Practitioner

(c) Owner of the approved place

(d) Chief Medical Officer

2. For protein detection most commonly used probe is :

(a) Interferon

(b) Antibody

(c) Lectin

(d) Antigen

3. Consumer who are loyal to two-three brands are considered as :

(a) Split loyals (b) Switcher loyals (c) Semi-core loyaLs (d) Shifting loyals

4.Choose the CORRECT statement with respect to “The Pharmacy Act, 1948 :

(a) Education regulation 1991 dose not prescribe the minimum qualification for the registration as Pharmacist
(b) Section 12 of the act deals with the approval of course of study under chapter 2 there of.
(c) Section 12 of the act deals with the approval of course of study and examination under chapter 2 there of.
(d) State Govt is authorised to make any rules with respect to course of study.

5.ELISA is based upon

(a) Antigen Protein Interaction

(b) Antibody – protein Interaction

(c) Antigen-Antibody Interaction

(d) Lectin – Antibody Interaction

6.The relation between emissive power of the surface and its absorptlvity is given by

(a) Stefan – Bolomann Law (b) Darcy’s Law (c) Fourier’s Law (d) Kirchhoff’s Law

7.  In India the patent office has its head office at Kolkata and branch offices at :

(a) Dibrugarh, Indore and Vapi (b) Kashmir, Ahmedabad and Trivandrum
(c) Chandigarh, Hyderabad and Goa (d) Mumbai, Chennai and New Delhi

8.  Penalty for the cultivation of any cannabis plant to produce, sell purchase transport in contravention of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act and Rules on first conviction is

(a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years or fine up to Rs. 10 Lakhs
(b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years or fine up to Rs. 1 Lakh
(c) Rigorous imprisonment up to 6 months
(d) Fine up to Rs. 10 Lakh

9.  In Direct, Contact or Jet condensers, barometric leg serves one of the following
functions :
(a) To remove the condensate/cooling water mixture
(b) To measure the pressure difference across the tube
(c) To Heat the liquid feed to ifs boiling point
(d) To transfer the feed in to the evaporating chamber

10. Which of the following is considered a differentiated product?

(a) Ranitidine (b) Zantac (c) Isoniazid (d) Paracetamol

11. Hardinge mill is a variant of:

(a) Fluid energy mill (b) Ball mill (c) Hammer mill (d) Rotary cutter mill

12. Retention hyperbilirubenamia is caused due to

(a) Choleric jaundice

(b) Non-clearance of bilirubin

(c) Reflux of bilirubin into bloodstream

(d) Overproduction of bilirubin

13. What will be the Heat of vaporisation of 1 mole of water, when it has the entropy change (AS) of 35.2 cal/mole.deg (at 25°C) ?

(a) 1.408 cal/ mole (b) 10489 cal/ mole
(c) 8465 cal/ mole (d) 880 cal/mole

close

Sign up to receive latest updates in your inbox.

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Open chat
1
Need Help?
Welcome to The Pharmapedia
Hello,
How can we help you?
%d bloggers like this: