Drug Inspector Previous Paper AP 2012 Andra Pradesh

Drug Inspector Solved paper AP 2012

1.    ‘Unguentum’ means

  • a)    Cream
  • b)    Lotion
  • *c)  Ointment
  • d)    Plaster

2.    What is rectified spirit?

a)    75% ethanol

b)    100% ethanol

*c)  90% ethanol

d)    50% ethaol

3.    In a prescription ‘vespere’ mean

a)    Talk in whisper

b)    Russer s viper

*c)  In the evening

d)    At the morning

4.    Function of sympathetic system include all except

a)    Dilation of pupil

*b)  Constriction of pupil

c)    Conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver

d)    Production of sweat

5.    Antihypertensive agent

a)    Amphetamine

b)    Adrenaline

c)    Salbutamol

*d)  Propranolol

6.    One kilogram is equal to

*a)  2 pound

b)    0 pound

c)    3 pound

d)    4 pound

7.    What is strophanthus

a)    Diuretics

b)    Antianemic

*c)  Cardiac glycoside

d)    Antiangina

8.    Drug classified under narcotic drugs and psychotropic agent include all except

*a)  Ephedrine

b)    Cocaine

c)    Heroin

d)    Hashish

9.    Dapsone is useful in

a)    Tuberculsis 

*b)  Leprosy 

c)    Malabsorption 

d)    AIDS

10.  Vehicles in ophthalmic drops include all except

*a)  Ethanol 

b)    Isotonic phosphate 

c)    Special boric acid 

d)    Boric acid

11.  Zidovudine is used in chemotherapy of 

*a)  Acute immune deficiency syndrome

b)    Small pox

c)    Influenzal pneumonia

d)    Bronchogenic carcinoma

12.  In what disease heart fails as a pump 

a)    Angina

*b)  Hepatic coma

c)    Congestive cardiac failure

d)    Nephrotic syndrome

13.  In a prescription ‘QID’ means 

a)    one fourth

b)    one quart

c)    once in four days 

d)    Four times a day

14.  Catgut is sterilized by 

a)    Dry heat method 

b)    Autoclavin

*c)  Ionizing radiation 

d)    Chemical method

15.  Example for Type I hyper sensitivity reaction

a)    Complement mediated cell damage 

*b)  IgE mediated reaction

c)    Serum sickness 

d)    Cell mediated immunity reaction

a)    Dry heat method 

16.  What is the normal cardiac output?

a)    1 liter/minute 

b)    2 liter/minute 

c)    4 liter/minute

*d)  5 liter/minute

17.  Enzyme responsible for conversion of glucose to glucose 6-PO4

a)    Glycogen synthase 

b)    G-6-phosphate 

*c)  Glucokinase

d)    Phosphorylase

18.  Containers for eye drops should be having all the properties except

*a)  Child proof 

b)    preserving the stability of content

c)    Not adversely affect content 

d)    Withstand sterilization

19.  In a prescription what is ‘bi tern in die’ (b t I d)

a)    Best taken in day time 

b)    Taken at bed time

c)    Take tablet with breakfast 

*d)  Two or three times a day

20.  One of the following is not a parasympathetic response

a)    Contract intestinal smooth muscle 

*b)  Increase heart rate

c)    Decrease heart rate 

d)    Stimulate gastric secretion

21.  Anti-anginal agent

a)    Hydrochlorothiazide 

b)    Reserpine

*c)  Glyceryl trinitrate 

d)    Sodium thiosulphate

22.  Method of sterilization metal instrument

a)    Adding antiseptic solution 

*b)  Steam under pressure

c)    Hot air oven 

d)    Radioactive isotopes

23.  Lysins are antibodies

a)    Which neutralize toxins

b)    cause germs to stick together

*c)  Kills organisms by causing them to burst open into fragments

d)    Combine with antigens on the outer surface of germs

24.  In a prescription ‘STAT’ mean

a)    Straight 

b)    One half 

*c)  At one

d)    Single tablet at a time

25.  Vasodilator anti-hypertensive

*a)  Sodium nitroprusside 

b)    Propranolol 

c)    Verapamil 

d)    Digokin

26.  In a prescription H. S. Hora somne mean

a)    Evening time 

b)    After dinner 

*c)  At bed time 

d)    Before and after lunch

27.  Complement is

*a)  system of enzyme producing lysis of cells

b)    Haptens which stimulate immune reaction

c)    Globulin conferring immunity

d)    Vaccine

28.  Gastro intestinal hormones include all except

a)    Gastrin 

b)    Chole cytokinin

c)    Secretin

*d)  Angiotensin

29.  Blood pressure is regulated by all except

a)    Vasomotore center 

b)    Aortic baro receptors

c)    Juxtaglomerular cells

*d)  Loop of Henle

30.  Normal saline

a)    10% sodium chloride 

b)    20% sodium chloride

*c)  0.9% sodium chloride 

d)    0.1% sodium chloride

31.  Drug obtained from plant source

*a)  Reserpine 

b)    Penicillin

c)    Ethanol

d)    Sulfamethoxazole

32.  Ulcer healing agent useful in peptic ulcer treatment

*a)  Omeprazole 

b)    Aluminium hydroxide 

c)    Ranitidine 

d)    Sucralfate

33.  Site of action for anti emetics

a)    Basal ganglia 

b)    Spinal chord 

*c)  Chemoreceptor trigger zone 

d)    Cerebral hemispheres

34.  In a prescription-D5W-means

a)    Distilled water 5 ml water 

b)    Daily-5-times

c)    5 drops of water 

*d)  Dextrose 5% in water

35.  Example for incompatibility due to chemical reaction

*a)  Potassium iode+ Emetine 

b)    NaCl + KCL

c)    Atropine + Acetylcholine 

d)    Resinous tincture + water

36.  In a prescription ‘git’ –indicates

a)    Syrup 

b)    Tablet 

*c)  Drops 

d)    Creams

37.  Why sodium thiosulfate is added to eye drops?

a)    As stabilizing agent 

*b)  As reducing agent 

c)    As buffering agent 

d)    As vehicle

38.  What is liquor in prescription order

a)    Ethyl alcohol 

*b)  Solution 

c)    Mixture 

d)    Syrup

39.  What is-ter in die-in prescription?

a)    Once in three days 

b)    Three tablets at a times

*c)  Three time a day 

d)    Two or three times a days

40.  Ophthalmic products include all except

a)    Solution for instilling into the conjunctival sac

b)    solution for lubricating contact lens

c)    Solution for bathing the eye 

*d)  Night blindness preventing drugs  

41.  In a prescription-sexies die (sex.d)) means

*a)  Six times a day

b)    Given to males only

c)    Given to females only

d)    Can be given to males or females

42.  British pharmacopoeia

*a)  Is a book of standards

b)    Gives list of drugs used in the country

c)    Enumerates pharmaceutical companies

d)    Is a therapeutic index

43.  What is a sedative

a)    Produces sleep 

b)    Produces hypnotic effect

c)    Relives convulsion 

*d)  Produces calming effect

44.  Zinc-oxide bandage is

a)    Adhesive bandage 

*b)  Impregnated bandage

c)    Elastic bandage 

d)    Non-elastic bandage

45.  In a prescription order inscription denotes

*a)  Guideline to the patient 

b)    Guideline to pharmacist

c)    Address of patient 

d)    Address of prescriber

46.  Example for physical incompatibility

a)    Alkali +Acid 

b)    Alkaloid + Acid

c)    Magnesium hydroxide + acid 

*d)  Castor oil + Water

47.  ‘qs’ in a prescription means

a)    Every hour 

*b)  Sufficient quantity 

c)    Every time

d)    Every day

48.  In a prescription what is the abbreviation for every day

a)    q I d 

b)    q o d

*c)  q d 

d)    q.

49.  What is the meaning of-ou-in a prescription

a)    One unit 

b)    Once a day 

c)    Orally 

*d)  Both eyes

50.  What is ‘sos’ in a prescription order?

*a)  If needed 

b)    Subcutaneous 

c)    Without 

d)    At once

51.  Sterilization the eye drops are done by following method except

a)    Heating in an autoclave 

b)    Filtration

*c)  Adding an antiseptic 

d)    Maintaining at 98C

52.  Non disposable glass apparatus cn besterilized by the following method except

*a)  Boiling in water for 30 mts 

b)    Hot air oven

c)    Infrared convertor oven 

d)    Forced convection gas oven

53.  Anti-anxiety agent

a)    Imipramine 

b)    chlorpromazine 

c)    Thiopentone 

*d)  Diazepam

54.  What is ranitidine?

*a)  H-2-Receptor antagonist

b)    H-3-Receptor antagonist 

c)    H-1-Receptor blocker

d)    H-4-Receptor antagonist

55.  Opioid derivative used in cough syrup

a)    Pentazocine

b)    Diphenoxylate 

*c)  Noscapine 

d)    Buprenorphine

56.  How many drops constitute l ml?

a)    5 

b)    10

c)    15 

*d)  20

57.  Ounce by volume is equal to 

*a)  30 ml

b)    60ml

c)    90ml 

d)    15ml

58.  Preservative used in eye drops include all except

a)    Benzalkonium 

*b)  Orthotoluene 

c)    Chlorocresol 

d)    Thiomersal

59.  Example for osmotic purgative

*a)  Magnesium sulfate 

b)    Liquid paraffin 

c)    phenolphthalein 

d)    castor oil

60.  Facilitated diffusion of glucose takes place in all sites except

a)    skeletal muscle 

b)    Adipose tissue 

c)    Insulin dependent tissues 

*d)  Renal tubules

61.  Transmitter in sympathetic system

a)    Acetylcholine 

*b)  Nor-adrenaline 

c)    Glutamine

d)    G1ycine

62.  Uses of isotonic saline does not include

a)    I. V. injection 

*b)  Intra-cutaneous injection

c)    Sub-cutaneous injection 

d)    Injection into varicose vein

63.  Reflex arc function at the level of

a)    Cerebellum 

b)    Cerebral hemispheres 

c)    Medulla 

*d)  Spinal cord

64.  Increased frequency of defection and water content in stools is called

a)    Constipation 

*b)  Diarrhea 

c)    Steatorrhea 

d)    Melena

65.  Hypothalamic function include all except

a)    Regulation of posterior pituitary 

b)    Regulation of anterior pituitary

c)    Control of reproduction 

*d)  Control of respiration

66.  Pulmonary tuberculosis spreads by

a)    Insect vector 

b)    Indirect contact 

*c)  Droplet infection 

d)    Direct contact

67.  Which vessel is highly muscular?

a)    Cappillary

b)    vein 

c)    Lymphcapillary 

*d)  Artery

68.  Antidiarrheal agents include all except   

a)    Kaolin 

b)    Pectin

c)    Diphenoxylate

*d)  Magnesium sulfate

69.  What is myocardial infarction? 

*a)  pain due to ischemic death of myocardium

b)    Pain decreased heart rate

c)    Pain to due increased blood pressure

d)    Pain to due heart failure

70.  Antibodies are   

a)    Immunongens 

b)    Haptnas

*c)  Immuno globulins

d)    Allergens

71.  Rsespiratory center is present in

a)    Cerbralm hemisphere 

b)    Hypothalamus 

c)    Pons

*d)  Medulla

72.  Under aerobic condition pyruvic acid is metabolized to CO2 and H2O throught

a)    Embden meyer’s pathway 

*b)  Citric acid cycle 

c)    Lactic acid phatway

d)    H.M.P.

73.  Action of vegus on heart

a)    Tachycardia 

*b)  Bradycardia 

c)    Increase force 

d)    Increased A-v conduction

74.  Drug useful tape infection

a)    Penicillin 

*b)  Niclosamide 

c)    Metronidazole

d)    Tetrachloro ethylene

75.  Bacteriostatic agent

a)    Ceftriaxone 

b)    Gentamicin 

c)    Cotrimoxazole 

*d)  Chloramphenicol

76.  In a prescription super scription include

a)    Active ingredient 

b)    Prescriber particulars 

c)    Instruction to the patient

*d)  Warning

77.  Publication of british medical Association and pharmaceutic society for prescriber and pharmacist national health services

a)    British pharmacopoeia 

*b)  British pharmacopoeia codex

c)    British pharmacopoeia Formulary 

d)    British therapeutic index

78.  NSAID

*a)  Aspirin 

b)    Diazepam

c)    Chloroquin 

d)    Morphine

79.  Vaccine that can afford protection against tuberculosis and leprosy

a)    Salk’s vaccine 

*b)  B. C. G. vaccine 

c)    sabin’s vaccine 

d)    Tuberculin

80.  What type of solution is normal saline

a)    Hypertonic 

*b)  Isotonic

c)    Paratonic

d)    Hypotonic

81.  Oral vaccine

a)    Hepatitis-A

b)    Hepatitis-B

c)    Salk’s vaccine 

*d)  sabins vaccine

82.  Example for a narrow spectrum antibiotic

a)    Dow cycline 

b)    Mino cycline

c)    Methacycline

*d)  Benzl penicillin

83.  What is co-trimoxazole? 

a)    Penicillin + sulfonamide

b)    Sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine

*c)  Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprine

d)    Triple sulfa

84.  What is tabella in prescription?

a)    Table spoon 

*b)  Tablet 

c)    Tablet salt

d)    Transdermal patch

85.  Oxyntic cells of gastric mucosa secrete 

a)    Pepsin

*b)  HCL

c)    Gastrin

d)    Amylase

86.  Enteric nervous system controls the following functions of G.I.T.

a)    Hunger

b)    Nausea and Vomiting

*c)  Secretion and motility

d)    Appetite suppression

87.  Example of passive immunity 

*a)  Antitetanic serum

b)    Tetanus toxoid 

c)    Poli vaccine 

d)    Hepatic vaccine

88.  Saline purgative 

a)    Isabgol

b)    phenolphtheline 

c)    castor oil 

*d)  Magnesium sulfate

89.  What is Liniment

*a)  Liquid medicament applied with friction on the affected area

b)    Liquid medicament applied as a paint

c)    Liquid medicament as enema

d)    Liquid medicament given orally

90.  Penicillinase resistant penicillin

a)    Benzylpenicillin 

*b)  Cloxacillin 

c)    Amoxycillin 

d)    Ampicillin

91.  Gloves are sterilized by 

*a)  Ehtylene oxide

b)    Hot air oven method

c)    Dry heat 

d)    Radiant heat

92.  Analgesic from opium poppy

a)    Diazepam 

*b)  Morphine 

c)    Aspirin 

d)    Diclofenac

93.  What are the sources of contamination include all except all

a)    The breath 

b)    The heart 

c)    Atmosphere 

*d)  Fumig

94.  Anti-emetic 

*a)  Metoclopramide 

b)    Ethionamide

c)    Ranitidine 

d)    Apomorphine

95.  Drugs useful in Hepaticx amoebiasis

a)    Chloroquine

b)    Tetracycline 

c)    Mebendazole 

d)    Pyrantel

96.  Effect of injecting hypotonic saline intravenously

a)    Damage to venous walls 

b)    Raise in the blood pressure 

*c)  Hemolysis 

d)    Diuresis

97.  ‘R’ in prescription means

a)    Repeat 

b)    Rectify 

*c)  Take 

d)    Supply

98.  Prevention of illicit traffic in narcotic and psychotropic drug act was enacted in

a)    1986 

b)    1987 

*c)  1988 

d)    1989

99.  Ciprofloxacin is drug of choice in

a)    Tonisilitis 

*b)  urinary tract infection 

c)    Fungal infection 

d)    Scabies

100. AC’ means is prescription

a)    Before rising 

*b)  Before food 

c)    shake well 

d)    Water

101.       Preservative useful in eye drops 

a)    Mercuric chloride 

b)    Chlorine water 

c)    Bromine water

*d)  Phenyl mercuric nitrate

102.       Drug used in petitmal epilepsy

a)    Phenytoin sodium

*b)  Ethosuximide

c)    Carbamezapine

d)    Phenobarbitone

103.       Narcotic drug and psychotropic drugs act, 1985, came into effect on

a)    1.1.1985 

*b)  14.11.1985 

c)    26.1.1996 

d)    14.11.1986

104.       U. S. P. stands for

*a)  United state pharmacopoeia 

b)    United nation nation pharmacopoeia

c)    Unsaturated Solution and powder

d)    United National Formulary

105.       F1uoro quinolones include all except

a)    Ofloxacin 

b)    Sparfloxacin 

c)    Pefloxacin 

*d)  Cloxacilli

106.       What is ‘SS’ in prescription?

a)    solution saturated 

b)    syrupy solution 

*c)  one hale 

d)    when needed

107.       Calcium channel blocker useful in angina

a)    Atewolol 

b)    Aspirin 

*c)  Nifedipine 

d)    Nitroglycerine

108.       Proton pump inhibitor

a)    Sucralfate 

b)    Milk of Magnesium

c)    Ranitidine 

*d)  Omeprazole

109.       Broad spectrum antibiotic

a)    Ampicillin 

b)    Cefazolin 

*c)  Doxycycline 

d)    Clrithromycin

110.       In a prescription ‘signature’ means

*a)  Doctor’s initials 

b)    patient’s initials

c)    Instruction to the patient 

d)    pharmacist’s initials

111.       What is the meaning of ‘pru’ in a prescription?

*a)  Per rectum normally 

b)    When needed 

c)    per orally normally 

d)    post lunch

112.       Semi-synthetic drug

*a)  Penicillin-G 

b)    Ampicillin-N

c)    Rifamycin-B

d)    Streptomycin

113.       Cardiac glycoside

a)    Enalapril 

b)    Hydralazine

*c)  Digoxin

d)    Hydrochlorothiazide

114.       Antineoplastic drug

*a)  Methotrexate 

b)    Piperazine citrate

c)    Amantadine

d)    Co-trimoxazole

115.       Therapeutic use of hypertonic solution injection

a)    Hypovolemic shock

b)    For lysing the R8C

*c)  To cause damage to vein an occlusion

d)    For dissolving powers for injection

116.       Digitalis is useful in

a)    Hypertension 

b)    Angina

c)    Hypotension

*d)  congestive heart failure

117.       One teaspoonful is equal to

a)    30ml

b)    16ml

c)    10 ml

*d)  5 ml

118.       In a prescription ‘signa’ means?

*a)  signature 

b)    Signs and symptoms 

c)    single items

d)    Label

119.       Retroviral infection

a)    Small pox 

b)    Influenza 

*c)  HIV 

d)    Cytomegalovirus

120.    Drug useful in peptic ulcer all except

a)    Aluminium hydroxide gel 

a)    Four time a day 

b)    Quantity sufficient 

c)    One fourth once 

d)    Every other day

122.  In a prescription ‘post cibum’ means

a)    Before food 

*b)  After food 

c)    As directed 

d)    Occassionally

123.  Material tasted for microbial contamination include all except

a)    Catgut 

b)    Human blood and blood product 

*c)  Phenol

d)    Eye drops

124.  1 gram is equal to how many grain

a)    60 

*b)  15 

c)    30 

d)    10

125. Pharmaceutical may be contaminated by all except

a)    Dust 

b)    Free organisms 

*c)  Poisonous gases 

d)    Droplets

126.  International pharmacopoeia is published by

a)    UNCTAD 

*b)  WHO 

c)    UNESCO 

d)    UNICET

127. Tablespoon is equal to

a)    5m1

b)    10ml 

*c)  15ml 

d)    30ml

128. One quart is equal to

a)    250ml 

b)    500ml 

c)    750ml 

*d)  1000ml

129.  As per narcotic drug act ‘controlled substances’ means

a)    Drug banned by state

*b)  Drug notified in the central government gazette

c)    Drug dispensed by registered medical practioner order

d)    Drug included in controlled price list

130. What is blood brain barrier

*a)  capillaries of the brain 

b)    Fourth ventricles 

c)    Third ventricles 

d)    First ventricles

131. Broad spectrum anthelmentic

a)    piperazine citrate 

*b)  Albendazole 

c)    Niclosamide 

d)    Tetrachloro ethylene

132.  ‘Bid’ in prescription means

*a)  Twice a day 

b)    Thrice a day 

c)    Two spoons 

d)    Two tablets

133. Drug obtained by recombinant DNA technology

a)    Tetanus toxoid 

b)    penicillin 

*c)  Human insulin 

d)    zidovudine

134. Why thickeninig agent are used in eye drops?

a)    Promote tears 

b)    Wash and clean eyes

*c)  Prolong contact with eye 

d)    lubricating the contact lens

135. Macrolide antibiotic

*a)  C1arithromycin 

b)    Streptomycin 

c)    Ciprofloxacin 

d)    Chloromphenicol

136. Centrally acting muscle relaxant

a)    Halothane 

b)    2-tubocurarine 

*c)  Mephenesin 

d)    Succinyl choline

137.   Young formula for calculating child dose

a)    Age In years + 20 × Adult dose 

*b)  Age(year) + Age +12 × Adult dose

c)    Age in year + ½  Adult dose 

d)    Age in year + Age + 12  ½  Adult dose

138. Drug obtained from animal source

a)    Dicoumarol 

*b)  Heparin 

c)    Insulin-human 

d)    Cocaine

139. Bactericidal agent

a)    Sulfadoxin 

*b)  Ceftriaxone 

c)    Tetracycline 

d)    Chloramphenicol

140. Malaria is caused by

*a)  Plasmodium vivax 

b)    Entamoeba histolytica

c)    Wuchureria bancrofti 

d)    Necator Americana

141.   Synthetic drug

a)    Atropine 

*b)  Aspirin 

c)    Iodine 

d)    Magnesium sulphate

142.  What is the abbreviation to denote ‘after food’ in a prescription

*a)  P. C.

b)    P. F 

c)    Prn 

d)    P. R.

143.       The number of parts by weight of the medicament that displace one part by weight of the base

a)    Calibration 

*b)  Displacement value 

c)    paratonicity 

d)    Isotonicity

144.       Blanket can be sterilized by

a)    Dry heat method 

*b)  Ethylene oxide treatment

c)    Autoclaving 

d)    Ionizing radiation

145.       Antifungal agent

*a)  Griseofulvin 

b)    Silver sulfadiazine 

c)    Ribavirin 

d)    Neosporin

146.       Book of reference published by the British pharmacological society on drugs and pharmaceutical substances

*a)  British national formulary 

b)    British Pharmaceutical codex

c)    British Pharmacopoeia 

d)    British Therapeutic index

147.       Systemic antacid

a)    Aluminium hydroxide gel 

b)    Magnesium sulfate

*c)  Sodium bicarbonate 

d)    Magnesium hydroxide gel

148.       Spread of chicken pox is by

*a)  Droplet infection 

b)    Body fluid 

c)    Contaminated foods 

d)    Direct contact

DI Paper 2012 AP Download pdf

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