IMMUNE SYSTEM & COMPLEMENT SYSTEM-Microbiology QUIZ Part IX| GPAT, Drug Inspector, DCO, Pharmacist, EXIT, NIPER

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

1. Classical pathway of the complement is activated by:

• a.     Antigen
• b.    Antibody
• c.    Antigen – Antibody complex
• d.    None of the above

2. The alternative pathway of the complement is initiated by:

• a.     Endotoxins
• b.    Lipopolysaccharides
• c.     Yeast cell walls
• d.    All of the above

3. What is the chemical nature of components of complement?

• a.     Protein
• b.    Lipopolysaccharide
• c.     Lipid
• d.    None of the above

4. First component of complement which binds to antigen-antibody complex in classical pathway is:

• a.     C1q
• b.    C1r
• c.     C1s
• d.    C3

5. Which complement of complement is present in the highest concentration in the serum?

• a.     C1
• b.    C2
• c.     C3
• d.    C5

6. Factor B and Factor D are important components of:

• a.     Classical pathway of complement
• b.    Alternative pathway of complement
• c.     Both of the above
• d.    None of the above

STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS OF IMMUNE SYSTEM

7. E-rosettes are formed by

• a.     T cells
• b.    B cells
• c.     Macrophages
• d.    Monocytes

8. EAC rosettes are formed by:

• a.     T cells
• b.    B cells
• c.     Macrophages
• d.    None of the above

9. CD3 receptor is present on:

• a.     T cells
• b.    B cells
• c.     Macrophages
• d.    Monocytes

10. CD-4 antigen is present on:

• a.     T-helper cells
• b.    Macrophages
• c.     Monocytes
• d.    All of the above

11. CD8 antigen is present on:

• a.     T helper cells
• b.    T suppressor cells
• c.     Both of the above
• d.    None of the above

12. Natural killer cells play an important role in:

• a.     Antiviral activity
• b.    Antitumour activity
• c.     Allograft rejection
• d.    All of the above

13. CD8 cells can recognise:

• a.     MHC class I antigen
• b.    MHC class II antigens
• c.     MHC class III antigens
• d.    All of the above

14. Class II MHC antigens are present on:

• a.     Macrophages
• b.    Monocytes
• c.     Activated T lymphocytes (CD4)
• d.    All of the above

15. Which of the following HLA types is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

• a.     HLA-B27
• b.    HLA-DR4
• c.     HLA-DP
• d.    None of the above

16. Which of the following HLA types is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

• a.     HLA-B27
• b.    HLA-DR4
• c.     HLA-A1
• d.    None of the above

IMMUNE RESPONSE

17. Cell mediated immunity (CMI) plays an important role in:

• a.     Allograft rejection
• b.    Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
• c.     Graft-versus-host reaction
• d.    All of the above

18. B-lymphocytes which have a long lifespan and can recognize the same antigen on subsequent exposure are named:

• a.     Memory cells
• b.    Killer cells
• c.     Natural killer cells
• d.    None of the above

19. The widely accepted theory of antibody formation is:

• a.     Direct template theory
• b.    Indirect template theory
• c.     Natural selection theory
• d.    Clonal selection theory

20. The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is:   

• a.     Mouse
• b.    Guinea pig
• c.     Rabbit
• d.    None of the above

21. The technique used for monoclonal antibodies production is:

• a.    Hybridoma
• b.    Rosette formation
• c.     Opsonisation
• d.    Immunoflorescence

22. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) is principally secreted by:

• a.     Macrophages
• b.    Monocytes
• c.     Both of the above
• d.    None of the above

23. Main functions of interleukin-1 (IL-1) are

• a.     Stimulation of T cells for production of IL-2
• b.    B cell proliferation
• c.     Neutrophil chemotaxis
• d.    All of the above

24. Which of the following methods can be used to detect cell mediated immunity?

• a.     Skin tests for delayed hypersensitivity
• b.    Lymphocyte transformation test
• c.     Migration inhibiting factor test
• d.    All of the above

25. Which of the following mechanisms can be used to induce immunological tolerance?

• a.     Clonal energy
• b.    Clonal deletion
• c.     Suppression
• d.    All of the above

IMMUNODEFICIENCY DISEASES

26. DiGeorge’s syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease due to:

• a.     T cell defects
• b.    B cell defects
• c.     Both of  the above
• d.    None of the above

27. Which of the following defects occur in Nezelof’s syndrome.

• a.     T cell defects
• b.    B cell defects
• c.     Both of  the above
• d.    None of the above

28. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to :

• a.     T cell defects
• b.    B cell defects
• c.     Both of  the above
• d.    None of the above

29. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to:

• a.     T cell defects
• b.    B cell defects
• c.     Complement disorder
• d.    Diminished phagocytic activity

30. Chronic graulomatous disease occurs due to deficiency of:

• a.     NADPH Oxidase
• b.    G6PD enzyme
• c.     Both of the above
• d.    None of the above

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Category: Microbiology

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83

Created on August 18, 2022 By Pharmapedia

Microbiology

Microbiology QUIZ Part IV-STERILISATION AND DISINFECTION

1 / 12

The process by which an article, surface or medium is made free of all microorganisms either in the vegetative spore form is known as:

A) Sterilisation

B) Disinfection

C) Asepsis

D) None of the above

2 / 12

Chemical disinfectants which can be safely applied to living tissues to prevent infection are known as:

A) Antiseptics

B) Formaldehyde

C) Ethylene oxide

D) None of the above

3 / 12

Temperature and time period used in hot air oven is:

A) 160℃ for two hours

B) 140℃ for two hours

C) 160℃ for one hours

D) None of the above

4 / 12

Temperature and time period used in holder method of Pasteurization is

A) 63℃ for 30 minutes

B) 63℃ for 50 minutes

C) 72℃ for 20 seconds

D) 72℃ for 40 seconds

5 / 12

Which of the following bacteria can survive in holder method of Pasteurization?

A) Bordetella pertussis

B) Coxiella burnetii

C) Salmonella typhi

D) Mycobacterium bovis

6 / 12

Stream sterilization at 100  for 20 minutes on three successive days is known as

A) Tyndallisation

B) Inspissation

C) Pasteurisation

D) Vaccine bath

7 / 12

Which of the following sterilization conditions are used in autoclave?

A) 121℃, 15 pounds pressure/sq inch, 15 minutes

B) 160℃, 20 pounds pressure/sq inch, 20 minutes

C) 140℃, 10 pounds pressure/sq inch, 15 minutes

D) None of the above

8 / 12

Which bacterial spores are used as sterilization control in autoclave?

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) Bacillus cereus

C) Bacillus stearothermophilus

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

9 / 12

Gamma radiations can be used for sterilization of:

A) Plastic syringes

B) Catheters

C) Swabs

D) All of the above

10 / 12

Glutaraldehyde is used for sterilization of

A) Cystoscopes

B) Endoscopes

C) Bronchoscopes

D) All of the above

11 / 12

The most widely used disinfectant for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected material is

A) Hypochlorite solution

B) Lysol

C) Formaldehyde

D) Mercuric chloride

12 / 12

Which of the following is used commercially for sterilization of disposable plastic items?

A) Ethylene oxide

B) Autoclave

C) Glutaraldehyde

D) Ethyl alcohol

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256

Created on December 27, 2021 By Pharmapedia

Antiseptic & Disinfectant MCQ Quiz part II- GPAT Pharmacist NIPER DI

1 / 22

Which of the following methods is useful for sterilization of antisera?

Filtration

Hot air oven

Tyndallisation

Autoclaving

2 / 22

Browne’s tube is used as indicator for efficacy of:

Ultraviolet rays

Heat sterilization

Filtration

Chemical sterilization

3 / 22

The efficiency of moist-heat sterilization is tested with

Vegetative cells of Bacillus stearothermophilus

pores of Bacillus stearothermophilus

Spores of aerobic bacteria

Clostridium botulinum

4 / 22

All of the following disinfectant contains heavy metal EXCEPT

Mercurochrome

Chlorine

Copper sulfate

Merthiolate

Silver nitrate

5 / 22

All of the following are sporicidal except

ethylene oxide

stabilized hydrogen peroxide

formaldehyde

glutaraldehyde

alcohol

6 / 22

Which of the following method is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?

Autoclave

Membrane filtration

Pasteurization

Hot Air Oven

7 / 22

Which of the following was the first widely used antiseptic and disinfectant?

Iodine

Alcoholes

Phenol

Chlorine

8 / 22

Identify the term that describes a disinfectant that can kill bacteria

Bactericidal

Bacteriostatic

Pathogenic

Bacteriosis

9 / 22

Identify the term that describes an environment completely free of microorganisms:

Antibiotic

Asepsis

Antisepsis

None

10 / 22

Identify the correct definition of an antiseptic:

Chemicals that kill or prevent infection and damage living tissues

Chemicals that kill or prevent infection without damaging living tissues

Chemicals that can only kill or prevent infection on non-living tissues

Chemicals that can only kill or prevent infection on animal housing

11 / 22

Isopropyl alcohol show maximum antiseptic activity

20-30 %

60-70 %

35 %

99.9 %

12 / 22

Cidex contains

Chlorhexidine and Cetrimide

Glutaraldehyde

Cresol

Chloroxylenol

13 / 22

Efficacy testing of Disinfectant is carries out by

Carrier test

Suspension tests

Capacity test

Field Test

All of these

14 / 22

Test organism used in the phenol coefficient road, test organism is

B. subtilis

Salmonell typhi

B pumilus

Pseudomonas diminuta

15 / 22

Which of the following is a/an intermediate level disinfectant?

Glutaraldehyde

peracitic acid

Hydrogen peroxide

Alcohols

16 / 22

R-W coefficient test is used to evaluate

Antibiotic activity

Sterility of packaging material

Nature of organism in bacterial infection

Bactericidal activity

17 / 22

Which of the following is used commercially for sterilization of disposable plastic items

Ethylene oxide

Autoclave

Glutaraldehyde

Ethyl alcohol

18 / 22

Glutaraldehyde is used for sterilization of

Cystoscopes

Endoscopes

Broncho scopes

All of these

19 / 22

Gamma radiation can be used for sterilization of the followings

Plastic syringes

Catheter

Swabs

all of these

20 / 22

Which bacteria spores are used in hot air oven sterilization

Stearothemophilus

Bacillus subtilis subsp niger

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

Catheters

21 / 22

Steam sterilization at 100  for 20 minutes on 3 successive days is known as

Tyndallisation

Inspissation

Pasteurization

Vaccine bath

22 / 22

Bacteria that can survive in holder method of Pasteurization

Bordetella pertussis

Coxiella burnetii

Salmonella typhi

Myobacterium bovis

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162

Created on December 27, 2021

Antiseptic and Disinfectant-Microbiology MCQ Quiz | GPAT Pharmacist DI NIPER

1 / 20

Temperature & time used in holder method of Pasteurization is

63°C for 30 minutes

63°C for 50 minutes

72°C for 20 seconds

72°C for 20 minutes

2 / 20

Temperature & time period used in hot air oven is

160°C for 2 hrs

140°C for 2 hrs

160°C for 1 hr

None

3 / 20

Chemical disinfectants which can be safely applied to living tissue to prevent infection are known as

Formaldehyde

Antiseptics

Ethylene oxide

None of the above

4 / 20

The process by which on article medium or surface is made free of Microorganism/MO is known as

Sterilization

Disinfection

Asepsis

Pasteurization

5 / 20

Disposable syringes are sterilized by

Autoclave

Gamma radiations

Filtration

Incineration

6 / 20

Antiseptic action of alcohol mainly due to

denaturing the protein

Oxidation of protein

Interfere with nucleic acid synthesis

None

7 / 20

Which of the following is a non-ionization radiation used in disinfectant/sterilization

Gamma rays

X-rays

UV radiation

Cosmic rays

8 / 20

In Tyndallisation process user for sterilization of egg, serum media involves

Heat at 100°C for 20 minutes on three successive days

Heat at 100°C for 20 minutes on two successive days

80 - 85°C for 30 minutes for 3 consecutive days

none

9 / 20

Flash method of Pasteurization

63°C for 30 minutes

72°C for 20 sec followed by cooling quickly to 13°C or lower

80 - 85°C for 30 minutes

At 100°C

10 / 20

Biological indicator used in moist heat sterilization method to check effectiveness of a given sterilization method

B. subtilis

Bacillus streareothermophilus

Bacillus pumilus

Pseudomonas dimunuta

11 / 20

Cold sterilization is also know as

Gamma radiation

Autoclave

Hot air oven

None

12 / 20

Physical Integrity test for disc membrane filter is checked by

Bubble point test

Clarity test

DOP test

both a & c

13 / 20

In HEPA filter, HEPA stands for ...

High efficiency paper air

High effective particulate air

High efficiency particulate air

High efferent particulate aerosol

14 / 20

Porosity of membrane filter medium in the process of sterilization by filtration

0.45 μm

0.22 μm

1 μm

2 μm

15 / 20

In dry heat Sterilization holding temp & time

160°C & 2 hrs

170°C & 1 hr

180°C & 30 minutes

All of these

16 / 20

. Sterilization of Non-aqueous thermostable can be carry out using

Autoclave

Dry heat Sterilization

Ethylene oxide gas

Radiation

17 / 20

Holding temperature & time in the moist heat sterilization (Autoclave)

160°C for 2 hrs

650°C for 1 minutes

121°C for 15 minutes

63°C for 30 minutes

18 / 20

To sterile aqueous & surgical materials which one of the following method would be preferred

moist heat sterilization

Radiation method

Dry heat sterilization

Membrane filtration method

19 / 20

Culture media use to carry out sterility test of parenteral & ophthalmic preparation

Fluid thioglycolate medium

Soyabean case in digest medium

Alternative thioglycolate medium

all of these

20 / 20

Sterility test for sterile preparation are carried out by

Membrane filter method

Direct innoculation methodethod

Pyrogen test

Rabbit test

both a & b

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58

Created on August 15, 2022 By Pharmapedia

Microbiology QUIZ -Part II – MICROSCOPY AND MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIA

1 / 6

Indian ink staining is used to demonstrate

Cell wall

Bacterial capsule

Bacterial flagella

Bacterial spore

2 / 6

All of the following are spore forming bacteria except

Clostridium botulinum

Bacillus subtilis

Bacillus anthracis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

3 / 6

Which one of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?

Escherichia coli

Salmonella typhi

Mycoplasma

Treponema pallidum

4 / 6

A tuft of flagella present at one or both ends of bacterial cell, is known as

Monotrichous

Amphitrichous

Lophotrichous

Peritrichous

5 / 6

Lipopolysaccharide is a major component of cell wall in

Gram positive bacteria

Gram negative bacteria

Fungi

Parasites

6 / 6

Peptidoglycan layer of cell wall is thicker in

Gram positive bacteria

Gram negative bacteria

Fungi

Parasites

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36

Created on August 15, 2022 By Pharmapedia

Microbiology QUIZ Part III – GROWTH, NUTRITION AND METABOLISM OF BACTERIA

1 / 5

Low redox potential of culture medium is required for growth of

Anaerobic bacteria

Escherichia coli

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

None of the above

2 / 5

The bacteria which require higher level of carbon dioxide for their growth are known as

Microaerophilic bacteria

Capnophilic bacteria

Aerobic bacteria

None of the above

3 / 5

Which one of the following bacteria can grow in acidic pH?

Klebsiella sp

Lactobacilli

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Vibrio cholera

4 / 5

Bacteria which can grow at temperature between 25  and 40  are known as

Mesophiles

Psychrophiles

Thermophiles

None of the above

5 / 5

Generation time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is about

20 seconds

20 minutes

20 hours

20 days

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