Answer key:- at the end of the page
1. Bacteria multiply by:
a) Replication cycle
b) Simple binary fission
c) Sexual reproduction
d) All of the above
2. Which of the following protects bacteria from antibiotics
a) Capsule
b) Cell membrane
c) Flagella
d) Fimbria
3. Bacteria without cell Wall is known as
a) Chlamydia
b) Rickettsia
c) Mycoplasma
d) Spirochetes
4. AIDS is transmitted through :
a) food
b) blood
c) semen
d) (b) & (c)
5. bacteria which cause syphilis:
a) Neisseria gonorrhea
b) Viencent angina
c) Treponema palladium
d) Yersinia pestis
6. The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax :
a) merozoites
b) sporozoites
c) schizont
d) trophozoite
7. mutualism means:
a) one partener benefits , other unaffected
b) both partner benefit
c) one partner benefit , other damaged
d) living together
8. Which of the following Transmitted by sexual intercourse
a) Toxoplasma
b) giardia lamblia
c) Trichomonas vaginalis
d) all of the above
9. Commensalisms means:
a) living together
b) one partner benefit , other damaged
c) both partner benefit
d) one partner benefits , other unaffected
10. Intermediate host of Trypansom
a) triatoma megista
b) sand fly
c) tse tse fly
d) anopheles
11. The cause of chaga’s disease:
a) Trypanosoma gambiense
b) Trypansoma rhodesiense
c) Trypansoma cruzi
d) Leishmania braziliense
12. Cause Kala- azar:
a) Leishmania tropica
b) Leishmania braziliense
c) Leishmania donovani
d) Leishmania mexicana
13. Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:
a) Anopheles
b) Sand fly
c) Human
d) Tse tse fly
14. Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :
a) Triatoma megista
b) Tse tse fly
c) Anopheles
d) Sand fly
15. Host for Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans
a) human
b) female Anopheles
c) rodents
d) lizard
16. Vectors for Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans
a) human
b) female Anopheles
c) rodents
d) lizard
17. Reproductive stages of malaria parasites take place in the
a) human
b) female Anopheles
c) rodents
d) lizard
18. all of these are transfusion transmitted disease except:
a) hepatitis B
b) hepatitis C
c) hepatitis A
d) AIDS
19. Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a) salmonella
b) shigella
c) cholera
d) all of the above
20. False statement about Type A Hepatitis virus
a) Contain RNA
b) Contain DNA
c) Transmitted through the faecal route
d) None
21. A population of cell derived from a single cell are called
a) Monoclonal cells
b) Clones
c) Protoplasts
d) Sub culture
22. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
a) Fungi
b) Commensels
c) Bacteriophages
d) Virion
23. Virus will contain
a) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
c) DNA
d) DNA or RNA
24. Mesosomes in the bacteria are the part of
a) Plasma membrane
b) ER
c) Lysosomes
d) Golgi
25. The test used to defection of typhoid fever
a) WIDAL test
b) ELISA
c) Rosewaller test
d) Western blotting
26. Wasserman test is used to detect
a) Typhoid
b) Syphilis
c) Rhematoid arthritis
d) Typhus
27. Hepatitis is a
a) Bacterial Infection
b) Protozoal infection
c) Fungal infection
*d) Viral Infection
28. Dengue fever cause by
a) Bacterial
b) Virus
c) Fungi
d) Protozoa
29. Trichomoniasis disease is caused by
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Fungi
d) Protozoa
30. Hensen’s disease is also known as
a) Tuberculosis
b) Leprosy
c) Tetanus
d) Typhoid
31. Which of the following is not a communicable disease?
a) Leprosy
b) Yellow fever
c) Malaria
d) Diabetes mallitus
32. Polio virus contain
a) DNA only
b) RNA only
c) DNA & RNA Both
d) None
33. Which of the following is a/an obligate intracellular parasite?
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) All of these
34. Virus contains:
a) Both DNA & RNA
b) Only DNA
c) Only RNA
d) Both c & d
35. Bacteriophages / phages are
a) Viruses
b) Bacterial
c) Fungi
d) Rickettsiae
36. Match correctly
a) Bubonic plague – Pasteurella pestis
b) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertusis
c) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria gonorrhea
d) Meningitis – Neisseria meningitides
37. Scarlet fever/ sore throat causing pathogen
*a) Streptococcus pyrogens
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Salmonella typhi
d) None
38. Bacillary dysentery caused by
a) Salmonella shigella
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Salmonella paratyphi
d) Serratia marcescens
39. Diptheria caused by
a) B. anthrasis
b) Clostridium tetani
c) Clostridium botulinum
d) Corynebacterium diphtheria
40. A substance that causes micro-organism to grow at a slower than normal
a) Bacteriostate
b) Inhibitor / Bacteriophrenic
c) Sanitiser
d) Anti-metabolite
41. The tuberculin test includes?
a) Mantoux test
b) Heaf test
c) Tine test
d) All
42. Resistance of a host to pathogens & their toxic effect is called _______?
a) Immunity
b) Resistance
c) Pathogenicity
d) Opsonisation
e) Infection
43. Chains of immunoglobulin are held together by _________?
a) Sulfide bond
b) Disulfide Bond
c) H-bond
d) None
44. Which of the following Immunoglobulin can cross the placenta
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgD
45. Which of the following Immunoglobulin involved in Allergic reaction?
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgD
e) IgA
46. Which of the following is used for fumigation of OT, wards in Hospitals?
a) Alcohol
b) Aldehyde (Formaldehyde)
c) Cetrimide
d) Chlorhexidine
47. Schick test is used to Diagnose
a) Syphilis
b) Diptheria
c) Tuberculosis
d) Typhoid fever
48. Match correctly (test of Diagnosis & Disease)
a) Lepromin – Leprosy
b) Widal – Enteric fever
c) Rose water – Rhumetoid arthritis
d) Ouchterlory – Small pox
49. Dick test is used to diagnose
a) Scarlet fever
b) Enteric fever
c) Typhus fever
d) Brucellosis
50. Biological indicator in the Ionising radiation sterilization method
a) Bacillus subtilis varniger
b) Bacillus pumilis
c) Bacillus stearothermophilus
d) None
51. Clinical or subclinical infections lead to
a) Active natural immunity
b) Passive natural immunity
c) Active artificial immunity
d) Passive artificial immunity
52. Vaccination induces:
a) Active natural immunity
b) Passive natural immunity
c) Active artificial immunity
d) Passive artificial immunity
53. Artificial passive immunity may be induced by:
a) Antiserum injection
b) Vaccination
c) Maternal antibodies
d) All of the above
54. Which immunoglobulin class can pass through placenta?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
55. Which immunoglobulin class has maximum concentration in the human body?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
56. Which immunoglobulin class is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
*d) IgE
57. Which immunoglobulin class can bind to mast cells?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
58. Which of the following disease caused by acid-fast bacilli?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Dipththeria
c) Cholera
d) Typhoid
59. Tuberculosis can be controlled by vaccinating with
a) DPT
b) BCG
c) TAB
d) ARV
60. All of the following are viral infection Except
a) Influenza
b) Measles
c) Mumps
d) Hepatitis
e)Typhoid fever
61. All are bacterial infection Except?
a) Cholera
b) Plague
c) Rabies
d) Pertutis
e) Tuberculosis
62. All of the following are used for prophylaxis or treatment EXCEPT?
a) Serum Albumin
b) Antitoxins
c) Antivenins
d) Globulins
63. The route of Administration for tuberculin is
a) Intradermal
b) S.C.
c) I.M
d) Intra-arterial
64. Streptokinase obtains from
a) coli
b) subtilis
c) B- hemolytic strptococci group ‘C’
d) Serratia Bacteria group
65. Peptidoglycan is a unique to
a) Viruses
b) Fungi cell wall
c) Bacterial cell wall
d) None
66. Which type of Bacteria retain the violet dye/ crystal violet:
a) Gram negative
b) Gram positive
c) Both
d) None
67. Gram negative bacteria cells retain dye:
a) Crystal voilet
b) Counter strain
c) Both
d) None
68. All genera are Gram positive Except:
a) Mycobacterium
b) Streptococcus
c) Salmonella
d) Clostridium
69. Original Fleming obtained Penicillin from the
a) Penicillin chryogenum
b) Penicillium notatum
c) Streptomycin griseus
d) None
70. Blood group was discovered by
a) Landsteiner
b) Mandal
c) Dr haragovind khurana
d) None
Answer Key
| Q. No | Ans | Q. No. | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| (1). | b | 11 | c |
| (2). | a | 12 | c |
| (3). | c | 13 | c |
| (4). | d | 14 | c |
| (5). | c | 15 | a |
| (6). | b | 16 | b |
| (7). | b | 17 | b |
| (8). | c | 18 | c |
| (9). | d | 19 | c |
| (10). | c | 20 | b |
| Q. No | Ans | Q. No. | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| (21). | b | 31 | d |
| (22). | c | 32 | b |
| (23). | d | 33 | a |
| (24). | a | 34 | d |
| (25). | a | 35 | a |
| (26). | b | 36 | |
| (27). | d | 37 | a |
| (28). | b | 38 | a |
| (29). | d | 39 | d |
| (30). | b | 40 | b |
| Q. No | Ans | Q. No. | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| (41). | d | 51 | a |
| (42). | a | 52 | c |
| (43). | b | 53 | a |
| (44). | b | 54 | a |
| (45). | c | 55 | a |
| (46). | b | 56 | d |
| (47). | b | 57 | d |
| (48). | 58 | a | |
| (49). | a | 59 | b |
| (50). | b | 60 | c |
| Q. No | Ans | Q. No. | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| (61). | c | ||
| (62). | a | ||
| (63). | a | ||
| (64). | c | ||
| (65). | c | ||
| (66). | b | ||
| (67). | b | ||
| (68). | c | ||
| (69). | b | ||
| (70). | a |
Want to practice more MCQ Quiz: click here
