IMMUNE SYSTEM & COMPLEMENT SYSTEM-Microbiology QUIZ Part IX| GPAT, Drug Inspector, DCO, Pharmacist, EXIT, NIPER

IMMUNE SYSTEM, COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

1. Classical pathway of the complement is activated by:

  • a.     Antigen
  • b.    Antibody
  • c.    Antigen – Antibody complex
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

C

2. The alternative pathway of the complement is initiated by:

  • a.     Endotoxins
  • b.    Lipopolysaccharides
  • c.     Yeast cell walls
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

3. What is the chemical nature of components of complement?

  • a.     Protein
  • b.    Lipopolysaccharide
  • c.     Lipid
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

4. First component of complement which binds to antigen-antibody complex in classical pathway is:

  • a.     C1q
  • b.    C1r
  • c.     C1s
  • d.    C3
View Answer

A

5. Which complement of complement is present in the highest concentration in the serum?

  • a.     C1
  • b.    C2
  • c.     C3
  • d.    C5
View Answer

6. Factor B and Factor D are important components of:

  • a.     Classical pathway of complement
  • b.    Alternative pathway of complement
  • c.     Both of the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

B

STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS OF IMMUNE SYSTEM

7. E-rosettes are formed by

  • a.     T cells
  • b.    B cells
  • c.     Macrophages
  • d.    Monocytes
View Answer

A

8. EAC rosettes are formed by:

  • a.     T cells
  • b.    B cells
  • c.     Macrophages
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

B

9. CD3 receptor is present on:

  • a.     T cells
  • b.    B cells
  • c.     Macrophages
  • d.    Monocytes
View Answer

A

10. CD-4 antigen is present on:

  • a.     T-helper cells
  • b.    Macrophages
  • c.     Monocytes
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

11. CD8 antigen is present on:

  • a.     T helper cells
  • b.    T suppressor cells
  • c.     Both of the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

B

12. Natural killer cells play an important role in:

  • a.     Antiviral activity
  • b.    Antitumour activity
  • c.     Allograft rejection
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

13. CD8 cells can recognise:

  • a.     MHC class I antigen
  • b.    MHC class II antigens
  • c.     MHC class III antigens
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

A

14. Class II MHC antigens are present on:

  • a.     Macrophages
  • b.    Monocytes
  • c.     Activated T lymphocytes (CD4)
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

15. Which of the following HLA types is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

  • a.     HLA-B27
  • b.    HLA-DR4
  • c.     HLA-DP
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

16. Which of the following HLA types is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

  • a.     HLA-B27
  • b.    HLA-DR4
  • c.     HLA-A1
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

B

IMMUNE RESPONSE

17. Cell mediated immunity (CMI) plays an important role in:

  • a.     Allograft rejection
  • b.    Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
  • c.     Graft-versus-host reaction
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

18. B-lymphocytes which have a long lifespan and can recognize the same antigen on subsequent exposure are named:

  • a.     Memory cells
  • b.    Killer cells
  • c.     Natural killer cells
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

19. The widely accepted theory of antibody formation is:

  • a.     Direct template theory
  • b.    Indirect template theory
  • c.     Natural selection theory
  • d.    Clonal selection theory
View Answer

D

20. The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is:   

  • a.     Mouse
  • b.    Guinea pig
  • c.     Rabbit
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

21. The technique used for monoclonal antibodies production is:

  • a.    Hybridoma
  • b.    Rosette formation
  • c.     Opsonisation
  • d.    Immunoflorescence
View Answer

A

22. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) is principally secreted by:

  • a.     Macrophages
  • b.    Monocytes
  • c.     Both of the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

C

23. Main functions of interleukin-1 (IL-1) are

  • a.     Stimulation of T cells for production of IL-2
  • b.    B cell proliferation
  • c.     Neutrophil chemotaxis
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

24. Which of the following methods can be used to detect cell mediated immunity?

  • a.     Skin tests for delayed hypersensitivity
  • b.    Lymphocyte transformation test
  • c.     Migration inhibiting factor test
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

25. Which of the following mechanisms can be used to induce immunological tolerance?

  • a.     Clonal energy
  • b.    Clonal deletion
  • c.     Suppression
  • d.    All of the above
View Answer

D

IMMUNODEFICIENCY DISEASES

26. DiGeorge’s syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease due to:

  • a.     T cell defects
  • b.    B cell defects
  • c.     Both of  the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

27. Which of the following defects occur in Nezelof’s syndrome.

  • a.     T cell defects
  • b.    B cell defects
  • c.     Both of  the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

C

28. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to :

  • a.     T cell defects
  • b.    B cell defects
  • c.     Both of  the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

C

29. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an immunodeficiency disease which occurs due to:

  • a.     T cell defects
  • b.    B cell defects
  • c.     Complement disorder
  • d.    Diminished phagocytic activity
View Answer

D

30. Chronic graulomatous disease occurs due to deficiency of:

  • a.     NADPH Oxidase
  • b.    G6PD enzyme
  • c.     Both of the above
  • d.    None of the above
View Answer

A

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Category: Microbiology

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Microbiology

Microbiology QUIZ Part IV-STERILISATION AND DISINFECTION

1 / 12

The process by which an article, surface or medium is made free of all microorganisms either in the vegetative spore form is known as:

2 / 12

Chemical disinfectants which can be safely applied to living tissues to prevent infection are known as:

3 / 12

Temperature and time period used in hot air oven is:

4 / 12

Temperature and time period used in holder method of Pasteurization is

5 / 12

Which of the following bacteria can survive in holder method of Pasteurization?

6 / 12

Stream sterilization at 100  for 20 minutes on three successive days is known as

7 / 12

Which of the following sterilization conditions are used in autoclave?

8 / 12

Which bacterial spores are used as sterilization control in autoclave?

9 / 12

Gamma radiations can be used for sterilization of:

10 / 12

Glutaraldehyde is used for sterilization of

11 / 12

The most widely used disinfectant for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected material is

12 / 12

Which of the following is used commercially for sterilization of disposable plastic items?

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Microbiology QUIZ Part XII- Virus, Virus-Host Interaction & Bacteriophage

1 / 24

Which of the following character/s is/are due to lysogenic conversion?

2 / 24

In which of the following processes, bacteriophage may act as carrier of genes from one bacterium to another?

3 / 24

The area of lysis on a bacterial growth caused by a phage is known as:

4 / 24

Which of the following bacteria can be typed by using phages??

5 / 24

Bacteriophage that parasitises a bacterium without lysing it, is known as :

6 / 24

Which of the following drugs is/are active against HIV?

7 / 24

Amantidine is used in the treatment of

8 / 24

Acyclovir is used in the treatment of :

9 / 24

Which of the following vaccines is killed vaccine?

10 / 24

All of the following vaccines are live except

11 / 24

Electron microscopy can be used for the laboratory diagnosis of:

12 / 24

All of the following viruses may be transmitted through genital tract except

13 / 24

All of the following viruses are transmitted by the respiratory route except

14 / 24

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are found in cells infected with:

15 / 24

Which of the following routes of inoculating embryonated hen’s egg is/are used for cultivationof viruses?

16 / 24

Which of the following is a diploid cell line?

17 / 24

Which of the following is the continuous cell line used in diagnostic virology?

18 / 24

Which of the following viruses is/are enveloped?

19 / 24

Which of the following viruses is/are non-enveloped?

20 / 24

Poxviruses show

21 / 24

Enveloped viruses are susceptible to:

22 / 24

Which of the following is the smallest virus?

23 / 24

Which of the following is the largest virus?

24 / 24

Which of the following characteristics are true for viruses?

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Microbiology QUIZ -Part II – MICROSCOPY AND MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIA

1 / 6

Indian ink staining is used to demonstrate

2 / 6

All of the following are spore forming bacteria except

3 / 6

Which one of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?

4 / 6

A tuft of flagella present at one or both ends of bacterial cell, is known as

5 / 6

Lipopolysaccharide is a major component of cell wall in

6 / 6

Peptidoglycan layer of cell wall is thicker in

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Microbiology

Microbiology QUIZ Part V- CULTURE MEDIA & METHODS

1 / 26

Yeast extract is prepared from

2 / 26

Which of the following is not  true about peptone.

3 / 26

Which of the following is not  a storage media.

4 / 26

In chocolate agar media the concentration of blood is

5 / 26

A culture medium the exact composition of which  is not  known was  called as

6 / 26

Which of the following is a characteristic of beef extract?

7 / 26

Which of the following is a rich source of B vitamins?

8 / 26

Agar media can be enriched with blood for the identification of?

9 / 26

Culture medium used for growth of fungi is

10 / 26

In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that medium is

11 / 26

Which of the following is not true about agar?

12 / 26

Which of the following is the example of Anaerobic medium

13 / 26

For preparation of semi-solid media agar used in concentration between

14 / 26

What is the concentration of agar in solid media

15 / 26

Example of indicator medium is

16 / 26

Blood  agar media is used for the growth of?

17 / 26

The most commonly used solidifying agent Agar is obtained from

18 / 26

Peptone water and nutrient broth are

19 / 26

Blood agar medium is

20 / 26

The solidifying agent used in microbiology laboratories to solidify medium

21 / 26

Which of the following bacteria produce saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth (CMB)?

22 / 26

Anaerobic jar is commonly used to grow:

23 / 26

Which enrichment medium is preferred to grow Vibrio cholerae?

24 / 26

When a liquid medium contains a substance that inhibits all unwanted bacteria but stimulates the growth of particular bacteria, it is known as:

25 / 26

When a solid medium contains a substance that inhibits all unwanted bacteria but facilitates the isolation of particular bacteria, it is known as:

26 / 26

All of the following are examples of enriched media except:

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Microbiology QUIZ Part III – GROWTH, NUTRITION AND METABOLISM OF BACTERIA

1 / 5

Low redox potential of culture medium is required for growth of

2 / 5

The bacteria which require higher level of carbon dioxide for their growth are known as

3 / 5

Which one of the following bacteria can grow in acidic pH?

4 / 5

Bacteria which can grow at temperature between 25  and 40  are known as

5 / 5

Generation time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is about

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