General Pharmacology ADME MCQs | Pharmacist & DI Quiz

Are you preparing for upcoming Government Pharmacist or Drug Inspector examinations? Mastering general pharmacology is crucial for cracking these highly competitive exams. To help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your exam readiness, we have compiled a comprehensive, interactive General Pharmacology MCQ Quiz. Covering high-yield topics like pharmacokinetics, drug metabolism, cytochrome P450 enzymes, and bioavailability, this practice test is designed to mirror the difficulty level of actual government exams. Not only can you track your score in real-time, but you will also get detailed explanations for each answer to help strengthen your core concepts. Start the quiz below to assess your preparation and gain a competitive edge!

Pharmacology MCQ Quiz by The Pharmapedia for Drug Inspector & Pharmacist

Pharmacology ADME MCQ Quiz Part 1

Score: 0 / 0

Q2. Alkaline diuresis is done for treatment of poisoning due to:

[a] Morphine [b] Amphetamine [c] Phenobarbitone [d] Atropine

Q5. Which of the following is a prodrug?

[a] Enalapril [b] Clonidine [c] Salmeterol [d] Acetazolamide

Q6. Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of cytochrome p450 enzymes?

[a] Ketoconazole [b] Rifampicin [c] Phenytoin [d] Phenobarbitone

Q7. In metabolism of xenobiotics, all of the following reactions occur in phase one except?

[a] Oxidation [b] Reduction [c] Conjugation [d] Hydrolysis

Q8. Identify the wrong statement:

[a] Acidic drugs bind to albumin in plasma [b] Basic drugs bind to alpha-1 acid glycoprotein in plasma [c] Drugs having higher affinity for a plasma protein can displace the other drug from the same protein [d] Sex steroid hormones do not bind to any protein in plasma

Q9. Alkalinization of urine is required for decreasing the poisoning due to

[a] Barbiturates [b] Amphetamine [c] Alcohol [d] Morphine

Q11. Which of the following antiplatelet drugs is a prodrug?

[a] Clopidogrel [b] Tirofiban [c] Aspirin [d] Dipyridamole

Q12. A highly ionized drug:

[a] Is excreted mainly by the kidney [b] Can cross the placental barrier easily [c] Is well absorbed from the intestine [d] Accumulates in the cellular lipids

Q13. The extent to which ionization of a drug takes place is dependent upon the pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

[a] pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized [b] Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization. [c] Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behavior in various body fluids. [d] Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely unionized at acid pH and will be about 40% nonionized in plasma.

Q14. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except:

[a] It is a fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form [b] The Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under the Curve after oral and intravenous administration [c] Low oral availability always and necessarily means poor absorption [d] Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data.

Q15. Which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis?

[a] Digoxin [b] Salicylates [c] Benzodiazepines [d] Organophosphates

Q16. Which of the following is true?

[a] As the concentration of the drug increases over the therapeutic range, only the bound form of the drug increases [b] The bound form is not available for metabolism but is available for excretion [c] Acidic drugs binds to beta globulin and basic drugs bind to albumin [d] Binding sites are non-specific and one drug can displace the other

Q17. In a patient with nephrotic syndrome and hypoalbuminemia, protein binding of which drug will not be affected:

[a] Tolbutamide [b] Morphine [c] Diazepam [d] Valproate

Q18. Drug transport mechanisms include:

Q19. Duration of action of i.v. administered drug depends on:

Q20. Causes for reduced bioavailability include:

Q22. Which of the following is not true:

[A] If a drug is administered rectally it follow 1st order kinetics [B] If a drug is administered I.M. it follows zero order kinetics [C] If a drug is administered I.V. it follows 1st order kinetics [D] Bio availability is usually lower after oral administration than i.v. administration [E] option a, b & c

Q23. CYP-450 inducers are:

[A] Cimetidine [B] Ketoconazole [C] Phenobarbitone (and DDT) [E] Theophylline

Q24. Drug distribution is influenced by:

Q25. True statement about the route of drug administration is:

[A] 80% bio-availability by I.V. injection [B] I.M. administration needs a sterile technique. [C] I.D. injection produces local tissue necrosis and irritation [D] Inhalation produces delayed systemic bioavailability

Q26. The volume of distribution of drugs is altered in:

Q27. Which of the following are prodrugs?

Q28. High first pass metabolism is seen in:

[A] Lignocaine [B] Propanolol [C] Salbutamol [D] All of these

Q30. High hepatic extraction ratio is seen in:

Q31. Regarding termination of drug action:

[A] Drugs must be excreted from the body to terminate their action [B] Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their pharmacologic activity [C] Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most important mechanisms involved [D] Distribution of a drug out of blood stream terminates the drug’s effects

Q32. The process by which the amount of a drug in the body decreases after administration but before entering the systemic circulation is called:

[A] Excretion [B] First pass effect [C] First order elimination [D] Metabolism

Q33. The most general term for the process by which the amount of active drug in the body is reduced after absorption into the systemic circulation is:

[A] Excretion [B] Elimination [C] First pass metabolism [D] Distribution

Q35. Urinary alkalinizing agents are administered in case of poisoning due to drugs which are:

[a] Weak bases [b] Weak acids [c] Strong bases [d] Strong acids

Q36. Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa?

[a] Morphine sulfate [b] Diclofenac sodium [c] Hyoscine hydrobromide [d] Quinine dihydrochloride

Q37. All of the following factors tend to increase the volume of distribution of a drug EXCEPT:

[a] High plasma protein binding [b] Low ionization at physiological pH values [c] High lipid solubility [d] High tissue binding

Q38. Which of the following drugs is commonly administered by intranasal route?

[a] Adrenaline [b] Desmopressin [c] Ganirelix [d] Insulin

Q39. Major mechanism of transport of drugs across biological membranes is by:

[a] Passive diffusion [b] Facilitated diffusion [c] Active transport [d] Endocytosis

Q40. A drug X is secreted through renal tubules, tubular secretion of this drug can be confirmed if renal clearance of drug X is:

[a] More than the GFR [b] Equal to the GFR [c] Less than the GFR [d] More than volume of distribution

Q41. Metabolism of a drug primarily results in:

[a] Activation of the active drug [b] Conversion of prodrug to active metabolite [c] Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites [d] Conversion of water soluble drug to lipid soluble metabolites

Q42. A new drug is found to be highly lipid soluble. It is metabolized at a slower rate of 10% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia that lasts only for 15 min. This short duration of anaesthesia is due to:

[a] Metabolism of the drug in liver [b] High plasma protein binding of the drug [c] Excretion of drug by kidney [d] Redistribution

Q43. All of the following are advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems EXCEPT:

[a] They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug [b] They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug [c] They minimize interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration [d] They avoid hepatic first pass metabolism of the drug

Q44. Thiopentone is used for induction of anaesthesia. It shows marked redistribution which is a characteristic of:

[a] Highly lipid soluble drugs [b] Highly water soluble drugs [c] Weak electrolytes [d] Highly plasma protein bound drugs

Q45. True statement about weakly basic drugs is:

[a] These are bound primarily to plasma albumin [b] These are excreted faster in acidic urine [c] Are highly ionized in the intestinal juice [d] These are absorbed mainly from stomach

Q46. Which of the following statements about a drug having Q high plasma protein binding is true?

[a] Volume of distribution of the drug is very high [b] This drug will be filtered quickly by glomerulus [c] This drug is likely to have minimum chances of drug interactions [d] High plasma protein binding decreases the volume of distribution

Q47. Most common phase II drug metabolizing reaction is:

[a] Glucuronidation [b] Acetylation [c] Oxidation [d] Glutathione conjugation

Q48. All of the following reactions are catalyzed by microsomal enzymes EXCEPT:

[a] Glucuronidation [b] Acetylation [c] Oxidation [d] Reduction

Q49. Which of the following factors has maximum effect on filtration of a drug by the glomerulus?

[a] Lipid solubility [b] Plasma protein binding [c] Degree of ionization [d] Rate of tubular secretion

Q50. A factor that is likely to increase the duration of action of a drug D that is partially metabolized by CYP3A4 in the liver is:

[a] Chronic administration of phenobarbital with the drug [b] Chronic administration of cimetidine with the drug [c] Displacement from tissues binding sites by another drug [d] Chronic administration of rifampicin

Q53. Drugs with high plasma protein binding have:

[a] Short duration of action [b] Less drug interactions [c] Lower volumes of distribution [d] All of the above

Q54. Which does not induce microsomal enzymes?

[a] Cimetidine [b] Griseofulvin [c] Rifampicin [d] Phenobarbitone

Q55. Which of the following is a prodrug?

[a] Ampicillin [b] Captopril [c] Levodopa [d] Phenytoin

Q56. Which one of the following drugs does not have active metabolite?

[a] Diazepam [b] Propanolol [c] Allopurinol [d] Lisinopril

Q57. Which one of the following drugs does not undergo hepatic first pass effect?

[a] Propanolol [b] Lidocaine [c] Insulin [d] Morphine

Q58. Which of the following is a prodrug?

[a] Captopril [b] Cimetidine [c] Carbimazole [d] Carbamazepine

Q59. High hepatic first pass metabolism is seen in all EXCEPT

[a] Insulin [b] Propanolol [c] Lignocaine [d] Nitroglycerine

Q60. Which of the following drugs do not produce active metabolites?

[a] Enalapril [b] Lisinopril [c] Prednisone [d] Sulfasalazine

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