Pharmacology MCQ Quiz – Part 3

General Pharmacology Quiz – Part 3

Q.105) A volunteer Ram will receive a new drug in a phase I clinical trial. The clearance and the volume of distribution of the drug in Ram are 1.386 L/hr and 80 L respectively. The half life of the drug in him would be approximately:

[a] 83 hr [b] 77 hr [c] 40 hr [d] 0.02 hr

Q.107) First order kinetics is characterized by:

[a] Dose dependent elimination [b] Decreasing clearance as plasma concentration increases [c] Increasing rate of elimination as plasma concentration increases [d] No relationship between rate of elimination and plasma concentration

Q.108) Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetic is:

[a] 84% [b] 93% [c] 80.5% [d] 75%

Q.109) Zero order kinetics is followed by all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

[a] Phenytoin [b] Barbiturates [c] Alcohol [d] Theophylline

Q.110) At toxic doses, zero order kinetics is seen in:

[a] Penicillin [b] Phenytoin [c] Valproate [d] Carbamazepine

Q.111) Amount of drug left after four plasma half-lives is:

[a] 6.25% [b] 12.5% [c] 25% [d] 50%

Q.112) Inter dose interval depends on:

[a] Half life of drug [b] Dose of drug [c] Age of patient [d] Bioavailability of drug

Q.113) Time required to reach the steady state after a dosage regimen depends on:

[a] Route of administration [b] Half life of a drug [c] Dosage interval [d] Dose of drug

Q.114) Zero order kinetic is shown by all EXCEPT:

[a] High dose salicylates [b] Phenytoin [c] Ethanol [d] Methotrexate

Q.115) The elimination of alcohol follows:

[a] Zero order kinetics [b] 1st order kinetics [c] 2nd orders kinetics [d] 3rd orders kinetics

Q.116) The clearance of drug means:

[a] Volume of plasma which is cleared of drug in unit of time [b] Amount of drug excreted in urine [c] Amount of drug metabolized in unit of time [d] All of the above

Q.117) Zero order kinetics occur in following drug with high dose:

[a] Phenytoin and Theophylline [b] Digoxin and Propranol [c] Amiloride and Probenecid [d] Lithium and Theophylline

Q.118) Zero order kinetics means:

[a] A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time [b] A constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time [c] The fraction of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation [d] The effect that can be increased by giving a second agent that boosts the effect ot the liver’s enzyme System

Q.119) About first order kinetics true statement is:

[a] Clearance remains constant [b] Fixed amount of the drug is eliminated [c] Half life increase with dose [d] Decreased clearance with increasing dose

Q.120) All of the following can cause SLE-like syndrome except:

[a] Isoniazid [b] Penicillin [c] Hydralazine [d] Sulphonamide

Q.121) The neurotransmitters; nor-adrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine act through which of the following receptors?

[a] Single pass transmembrane receptors [b] Four pass transmembrane receptors [c] Seven pass transmembrane receptors [d] Ligand gated receptors

Q.122) If there is a Gs alpha subunit gain-of-function mutation, this results in:

[a] Decreased cAMP [b] Decreased IP3 [c] Increased GTPase activity [d] Increased cAMP

Q.123) Which one of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of insulin on target cells?

[a] Insulin binds to cytoplasmic receptor molecule and is transferred as a hormone receptor complex to the nucleus where it acts to modulate gene expression. [b] Insulin binds to a receptor molecule on the outer surface of the plasma membrane and the hormone receptor complex activates adenylate cyclase through the Gs protein. [c] Insulin binds to a transmembrane receptor at the outer surface of the plasma membrane, which activates the tyrosine kinase that is the cytosolic domain of the receptor. [d] Insulin enters the cell and causes the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.

Q.124) True about G protein coupled receptors is:

[a] G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface [b] All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma shouldbind to each other for G proteins to act [c] G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit [d] G protein is bound to GTP in resting state

Q.125) Which drug is not metabolized by acetylation?

[a] Isoniazid [b] Dapsone [c] Hydralazine [d] Metoclopropamide

Q.126) Action of alpha subunit of G-protein is:

[a] Binding of agonist [b] Conversion of gdp to gtp [c] Breakdown of gtp to gdp [d] Internalization of receptors

Q.127) All are second messengers except:

[a] Cyclic amp [b] Guanylyl cyclase [c] Diacylglycerol [d] Inositol triphosphate

Q.128) A non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme:

[a] Increase Km with no or little change in Vmax [b] Decrease Km [c] Decrease Vmax [d] Increase Vmax

Q.129) All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells results from:

[a] Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase [b] Activation of synthetase [c] Activation of protein kinase [d] Phosphorylation of G protein

Q.130) All of the following drugs cause hemolysis in patients with G-6-PD deficiency except:

[a] Primaquine [b] Chloroquine [c] Quinine [d] Pyrimethamine

Q.131) All of the following agents act by intracellular receptors EXCEPT:

[a] Thyroid hormones [b] Vitamin D [c] Insulin [d] Steroids

Q.132) Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true except:

[a] In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency [b] In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy [c] ED50 of the drug corresponds to the efficacy [d] Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy

Q.133) True statement regarding inverse agonist is:

[a] Binds to the receptor and causes intended action [b] Binds to the receptor and causes opposite action [c] Binds to the receptor and causes no action [d] Binds to the receptor and causes submaximal action

Q.134) All are pharmacogenetic conditions except:

[a] Adenosine deaminase deficiency [b] Malignant hyperthermia [c] Coumarin insensitivity [d] G-6-PD deficiency

Q.135) Which of the following property of the drug will enable it to be used in low concentration?

[a] High affinity [b] High specificity [c] Low specificity [d] High stability

Q.136) All of the following drugs are contraindicated in patients with G-6-PD deficiency, except:

[a] Cotrimoxazole [b] Furazolidone [c] Nalidixic acid [d] Ceftriaxone

Q.137) Km of an enzyme is:

[a] Dissociation constant [b] The normal physiological substrate concentration [c] The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity [d] Numerically identical for all isozymes that catalyze a given reaction

Q.138) Physiological antagonism is found in:

[a] Isoprenaline and salbutamol [b] Isoprenaline and adrenaline [c] Isoprenaline and propanolol [d] Adrenaline and histamine [e] Salbutamol and leukotrienes

Q.139) Drugs that should be avoided in G-6-PD deficiency are:

Q.140) Phamacogenetics is associated with:

[a] Variability of enzyme action [b] Environmental influence [c] Individual variability in oral absorption [d] Different mechanism of actions in different individuals [e] Different DRC in different individuals

Q.142) Which of the following terms best describes the antagonism of leukotrienes’ bronchoconstrictor effect (mediated at the leukotriene receptors) by terbutaline (acting at the adrenoceptors) in a patient with asthma?

[a] Pharmacologic antagonist [b] Partial agonist [c] Physiologic antagonist [d] Chemical antagonist

Q.143) Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of adrenaline at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them?

[a] Pharmacologic antagonist [b] Non competitive antagonist [c] Physiologic antagonist [d] Chemical antagonist

Q.144) Which of the following most accurately describes the transmembrane signaling process involved in the steroid hormone action?

[a] Action on a membrane spanning tyrosine kinase [b] Action of a G protein, which activates or inhibits adenylyl cyclase [c] Diffusion across the membrane and binding to an intracellular receptor [d] Opening of transmembrane ion channels

Q.145) Which of the following is most likely due to a pharmacogenetic condition?

[a] Hypoglycemia by insulin [b] Tachycardia by albuterol [c] Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia [d] Primaquine induced hemolytic anemia

Q.146) Dose response curves of salbutamol for bronchodilation and tachycardia are widely separated on the dose axis. This information suggests that salbutamol is:

[a] Highly potent cardiac stimulant [b] Highly efficacious bronchodilator [c] Highly toxic drug [d] Highly selective drug

Q.147) Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is:

[a] Adenylyl cyclase – cyclic AMP pathway [b] Phospholipase C-IP3: DAG pathway [c] Intrinsic ion channel operation [d] Nuclear receptors

Q.148) Which of the following is an inotropic receptor?

[a] Muscarinic cholinergic receptor [b] Nicotinic cholinergic receptor [c] Glucocorticoid receptor [d] Insulin receptor

Q.149) A partial agonist has:

[a] High affinity but low intrinsic activity [b] High affinity but no intrinsic activity [c] Low affinity but high intrinsic activity [d] Low affinity and low intrinsic activity

Q.150) Which of the following drugs act through heptahelical(serpentine) receptors?

[a] Insulin [b] Estrogen [c] Local anaesthetics [d] Salbutamol

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