Please find below solved Pharmacist Exam paper which was conducted by Bihar Staff Selection Commission, Govt of Bihar.
Pharmacist Previous Year Question Paper PDF
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1. Who is regarded as the father of surgery in ancient India?
(A) Sushrutha
(B) Charaka
(C) Vasavadatta
(D) Dhanvantari
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
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2. How many bones are there in the normal adult human body?
(A) 201
(B) 204
(C) 206
(D) 210
Answer with Explanation
Answer (c)
The human skeleton consists of two principal subdivisions. These are (1) the axial, comprising the vertebral column—the spine—and much of the skull, and (2) the appendicular, to which the pelvic (hip) and pectoral (shoulder) girdles and the bones and cartilages of the limbs belong. a third subdivision, the visceral, comprising the lower jaw, some elements of the upper jaw, and the branchial arches, including the hyoid bone.
Skull-22 bones, Vertebral column: 33, Thoracic cage: 25; Pelvic Gridle & Lower limb: 62; Shoulder Girdle & Uper limb: 64; Total: 206 bones
3. Which of these is used in the treatment of malaria?
(A) Mefloquine
(B) Azithromycin
(C) Rabeprazole
(D) Methotrexate
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
- Primary tissue schizonticides: These are the drugs that kill schizonts in the liver (pre-erythrocytic stage) e.g. proguanil, primaquine and pyrimethamine. These drugs are used for causal prophylaxis.
- Erythrocytic schizonticides: These drugs kill schizonts in the blood and can be used for the treatment of acute attacks as well as suppressive prophylaxis of malaria. All of these drugs are used for the treatment of malaria but not for prophylaxis. Artemisinin derivatives are very short-acting whereas quinine and sulfadoxine are toxic on long term administration, therefore are not suitable for prophylaxis. Erythrocytic schizonticides may be fast-acting or slow-acting:
- Fast-acting: Chloroquine, mepacrine, quinine, mefloquine, halofantrine, atovaquone and artemisinin derivatives.
- Slow acting: Proguanil, pyrimethamine, sulfonamides, tetracyclines.
- Exo-erythrocytic schizonticides: These drugs kill the exo-erythrocytic forms and are thus used for radical cure e.g. primaquine.
- Sporonticides or gametocides: These drugs kill the gametes and thus prevent transmission of malaria. Chloroquine, mepacrine and quinine kill the gametes of P. vivax only whereas proguanil, pyrimethamine, primaquine and artemisinin kill gametes of both P. vivax as well as P. falciparum.
Note: Exo-erythrocytic stage is absent in P. falciparum, so relapses do not occur. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic which is mostly used in Upper respiratory track infection.
4. The organism responsible for AIDS is
(A) Hepatitis B virus
(B) HIV
(C) Herpes virus
(D) Plasmodium
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B;
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the body’s immune system & causes AIDS. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a virus that attacks immune cells called CD4 cells, which are a type of T cell. People receive an AIDS diagnosis when their CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm.
Hepatitis is mainly 5 types caused by Hepatitis virus, Clink here for more details on Hepatitis and its type.
Plasmodium (a genus of parasitic protozoans of the sporozoan subclass) is a genus of unicellular eukaryotes that are obligate parasites of vertebrates and insects. Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasite & transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes (vector). There are four kinds of malaria parasites that can infect humans: Plasmodium vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. falciparum.
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5. Which of the following routes of drug administration is not parenteral?
(A) Intravenous
(B) Subcutaneous
(C) Intradermal
(D) Sublingual
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D;
The parenteral route includes Subcutaneous, IV, IM, & ID (Intra-dermal). The drug is bypassed liver (not subject to first-pass metabolism) by parenteral route. The irritant drug can be given by the intravenous route.
Note: oil & aqueous suspension can not administered by IV route (solid particle may block capillaries). Such Preparation can be administered by IM route.
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6. Beta-blockers are used in the treatment of
(A) Hypertension
(B) Myxedema
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D)Hypercholesterolemia
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Blood pressure:- mainly 3 components: Heart, Blood vessel & volume of blood. Adrenergic system action is mediated via alpha & Beta receptor.
Heart: Positive chronotropic (heartbeat rate), positive ionotropic (force of contraction) due to stimulation of β1 receptors activation which results in high BP. So Beta-blockers decrease the blood pressure (mainly due to β1 blockade).
7. What is the primary use of pioglitazone?
(A) Anti-convulsant
(B) In Hypertension
(C) In Diabetes
(D) In Malaria
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Pioglitazone is Thiazolidiones derivative & Oral antidiabetic drug which is selective agonist for nuclear peroxisome proliferator activated receptor yamma (PPARy). It enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes. WHile Rosilitazone is currently is banned in India since 2010.
The Pharmapedia
8. Fever with body aches and low platelet counts is likely to be
(A) Dengue
(B) Typhoid
(C) TB
(D) Pneumonia
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Dengue viruses are spread to people through the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito. These are the same types of mosquitoes that spread Zika and chikungunya viruses.A pregnant woman already infected with dengue can pass the virus to her fetus during pregnancy or around the time of birth. Dengue fever causes the platelet and blood pressure to fall and the child experiences severe abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea, decreased urine, poor oral intake and redness of body.
9. The process of transport across a cell in particulate form by formation of vesicles is called
(A) Active transport
(B) Facilitated diffusion
(C) Pinocytosis
(D) Passive diffusion
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Pinocytosis is one type of endocytosis & It is a process by which liquid droplets are ingested by living cells. While Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis involved in the transport of solid particles sized >0.5 µm.
10. When the rate of elimination of a drug remains constant irrespective of drug concentration, it is said to follow
(A) Zero-order kinetics
(B) First-order kinetics
(C) Exponential kinetics
(D) Secretory kinetics
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Zero order kinetics also known as Capacity limited elimination or Michaelis-Menten elimination. A constant amount of Drug is eliminated in unit time.. eg. ethyl alcohol,
t- half= In2/k
t- half for zero orders is not constant ( increases with dose), while t- half for first order kinetics remains constant because Vd & CL do not change with dose.
11. Complete drug elimination occurs usually after
(A) 2 half-lives
(B) 3 half-lives
(C) 5 half-lives
(D) 10 half-lives
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
The nearly completely drug elimination occurs in 4-5 half lives.
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12. Hit and Run’ drugs are
(A) Whose plasma concentration cannot be measured
(B) Whose effect lasts longer than the drug itself
(C) Those with short life
(D) Those withdrawn from market very fast
Answer with Explanation
Such types drug irreversibly inhibit the receptor; Receptor blocks permanently by drugs. The action is blocked until new receptor is synthesized. Example of such drugs; Mnemonic: MOGRA: MAO inhibitors, Omeprazole (Other PPIs also) Guanethidine, Reserpine and Aspirin.
13. The longest bone in the body is
(A) Humerus
(B) Stapes
(C) Tibia
(D) Femur
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
Femur or thighbone is the longest bone in the body. The head of the femur fits into the hip socket and the bottom end connects to your knee. The two bones beneath the knee that make up your shin are tibia and fibula. The upper and lower leg are connected by a hinge joint.
14. A drug which activates a receptor to produce an effect in the opposite direction to that of a well-recognized agonist is called
(A) Partial agonist
(B) Antagonist
(C) Super Agonist
(D) Inverse agonist
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
activates a receptor to produce an effect in the opposite direction to that of a well-recognized agonist is called Inverse Agonist while Antagonist prevents/stops the action of an agonist on a receptor. A partial agonist activates a receptor to produce a submaximal effect but antagonizes the action of a full agonist.
15. Which is the largest organ in the body?
(A) Skin
(B) Brain
(C) Heart
(D) Kidney
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
the skin is considered to be the largest organ. It covers your whole body and makes up about 16 percent
16. Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and
(A) Respiratory rate
(B) Minute ventilation
(C) Stroke volume
(D) Peripheral resistance
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Cardiac output= Heart beat x Stroke volume
Cardiac output is the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute. Stroke volume is determined by preload, contractility, and afterload. The normal range for cardiac output is about 4 to 8 L/min, but it can vary depending on the body’s metabolic needs.
17. Precordium refers to the area overlying the
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Stomach
(D) Urinary bladder
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
18. The route of administration for insulin is
(A) Subcutaneous
(B) Intramuscular
(C) Intravenous
(D) All
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A,
Only Regular insulin can be given via IV route, While other all insulin preparation can administer vai s.c. routes.
19. The cells in the blood responsible for carrying oxygen is
(A) WBC
(B) RBC
(C) Lymphocyte
(D) Platelet
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
Hemoglobin is the protein inside red blood cells. It carries oxygen. Red blood cells also remove carbon dioxide from your body, transporting it to the lungs for you to exhale. Red blood cells are made in the bone marrow. They typically live for about 120 days, and then they die.
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20. Energy from food sources is measured usually in
(A) Dyne
(B) Calorie
(C) Pascals
(D) Horsepower
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, protein provides 4 calories per gram, and fat provides 9 calories per gram.
Glycemic index:
The glycemic index of a carbohydrate represents how quickly its consumption increases blood sugar levels. Values range from 1 (the slowest) to 100 (the fastest, the index of pure glucose).
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21. The acid normally secreted in the human stomach is
(A) Nitric acid
(B) Sulphuric acid
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Citric acid
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
HCl is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach.
To begin with, water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) combine within the parietal cell cytoplasm to produce carbonic acid (H2CO3), catalysed by carbonic anhydrase. Carbonic acid then spontaneously dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO3–). The hydrogen ion that was formed is transported into the stomach lumen via the H+– K+ ATPase. This channel uses ATP energy to exchange potassium ions in the stomach with hydrogen ions in the parietal cell. The bicarbonate ion is transported out of the cell into the blood via a transporter protein called anion exchanger which transports the bicarbonate ion out the cell in exchange for a chloride ion (Cl–). This chloride ion is then transported into the stomach lumen via a chloride channel.
This results in both hydrogen and chloride ions being present within the stomach lumen. Their opposing charges leads to them associating with each other to form hydrochloric acid (HCl).
22. Who first showed the complete pathway of blood circulation?
(A) William Harvey
(B) Vesuvius
(C) Hippocrates
(D) Alexander Fleming
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
23. The number of chambers in a normal human heart is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
The heart consists of four chambers in which blood flows. Blood enters the right atrium and passes through the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated. The oxygenated blood is brought back to the heart by the pulmonary veins which enter the left atrium. From the left atrium, blood flows into the left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps the blood to the aorta which will distribute the oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.
24. Human cells have pairs of sex chromosomes.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 23
(D) 46
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Humans have 22 chromosome pairs and one pair (two) sex chromosomes (. Females have two X chromosomes; males have an X chromosome and a Y chromosome.
Humans have 22 of these chromosome pairs, called autosomes & 23rd pair called sex chromosomes and d Complete set of chromosomes called karyotypes.
The X chromosome is significantly longer than the Y chromosome and contains hundreds more genes. Because the additional genes in the X chromosome have no counterpart in the Y chromosome, the X genes are dominant. This means that almost any gene on the X, even if it is recessive in the female, will be expressed in males. These are referred to as X-linked genes. Genes found only on the Y chromosome are referred to as Y-linked genes, and expressed only in males. Genes on either sex chromosome can be called sex-linked genes.
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25. The organ predominantly involved in the metabolism of drugs is
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Stomach
(D) Spleen
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
The principal organs of drug metabolism are the liver and (for orally taken drugs) the small intestine. Drug metabolism involves the enzymatic conversion of therapeutically important chemical species to a new molecule inside the human body. The process may result in pharmacologically active, inactive, or toxic metabolite. Drug metabolic process involves two phases, Phase I (nonsynthetic reactions- include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and decyclization reactions.) & Phase II (Synthetic reactions/conjugation). The principal effectors of drug metabolism are the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzymes. The CYP enzymes are membrane-bound proteins, present in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of liver and other tissues.
The primary objective of drug metabolism is to facilitate a drug’s excretion by increasing its water solubility/hydrophilicity (conversion of lipophilic chemical compounds (drugs) into highly polar derivatives).
26. When a drug binds to a silent receptor,
(A) no pharmacological response occurs
(B) the drug gets metabolized
(C) neuroendocrine hormones get released
(D) DNA changes occur
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
27. The median lethal dose/median effective dose of a drug is called
(A) Therapeutic subsistence
(B) Therapeutic index
(C) Therapeutic window
(D) Therapeutic efficacy
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
Therapeutic Index/safety margin is ratio of median lethal dose to median effective dose{ LD50/ED50). ED50 is the dose which produce the specified effect in 50 % individuals and LD50 is the dose which kills 50 % recepients.
28. The anti-diabetic drug recently in the news for its probable relation to bladder cancer is
(A) Nateglinide
(B) Sitagliptin
(C) Pioglitazone
(D) Metformin
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
29. Inert substance given in the garb of medicine is called
(A) Placebo
(B) Vaccine
(C) Toxoid
(D) Multivitamin
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
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30. The structure carrying deoxygenated blood is
(A) Artery
(B) Lymphatic
(C) Vein
(D) Nerve
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
only artery (Pulmonary artery) in the body which carries de-oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs where the exchange of gases takes place (carbon dioxide is excreted & oxygen is absorbed). Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood back to the heart (left ventricle) form the lungs.
31. Which of these vitamins is water-soluble?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
Answer with Explanation
Fat soluble vit. E, D, K, A and They are stored in liver and adipose (fat storing) tissues.& water soluble: B & C. Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in diet because they are readily excreted in urine and cannot be stored (except vitamin B12) in our body.
32. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Pellagra?
(A) Riboflavin
(B) Niacin
(C) Biotin
(D) Methylcobalamin
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
- Vitamin A——— Night blindness
- Vitamin B1———Beriberi
- Vitamin B2——– Ariboflavinosis
- Vitamin B3 ——–Pellagra
- Vitamin B5 ——–Paresthesia
- Vitamin B6 ——–Anemia
- Vitamin B7 —— Dermatitis, enteritis
- Vitamin B9 & Vitamin B12 —– Megaloblastic anemia
- Vitamin C —— Scurvy, Swelling of Gums
- Vitamin D —— Rickets & Osteomalacia
- Vitamin E —— Less Fertility
- Vitamin K —— Non-Clotting of Blood
33. Which of these drugs is used as a diuretic?
(A) Frusemide
(B) Calutamide
(C) Chlorpropamide
(D) Cyclophosphamide
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
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34. Which of these is an anticancer drug?
(A) Ticarcillin
(B) Tigecycline
(C) Teicoplanin
(D) Carboplatin
Answer
Ans: D
35. Which of the following drugs is likely to be tapered and stopped?
(A) Amoxycillin
(B) DEC
(C) Prednisolone
(D) Meropenem
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Many medicines should not be stopped or withdrawn abruptly for fear of adverse, and sometimes disastrous, consequences withdrawal symptoms. Example
- Clonidine
- Propranolol (Inderal) and other beta-blockers
- Antideprassant like Venlafaxine,Paroxetine
- Prednisone and other steroids
- Antiepileptic Drugs
36. Wilson s disease is associated with metabolism of
(A) Iron
(B) Zinc
(C) Aluminium
(D) Copper
Answer with Explanation
37. The antidote for heparin is
(A) N-acetylcysteine
(B) Glucagon
(C) Methylene blue
(D) Protamine
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
Common antidote: Click here
38. Which of the following is used as an antiepileptic drug?
(A) Phenobarbitone
(B) Penicillin
(C) Varenicline
(D) Acarbose
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
39. Which of the antihypertensive drugs has dry cough as a side effect?
(A) Ganglion blockers
(B) Calcium channel blockers
(C) Diuretics
(D) ACE inhibitors
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
40. Which of these drugs is likely to be used weekly once?
(A) Amoxycillin
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Atorvastatin
(D) Sulphasalazine
Answer with Explanation
ans: B
Mtx used in rheumatoid as a Immunosupressants.
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41. Which of the following is an antifungal agent?
(A) Ciprofloxacin
(B) Ornidazole
(C) Miconazole
(D) Albendazole
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
42. The normal fasting blood sugar value is around
(A) 50mg/dL
(B) 100mg/dL
(C) 150 mg/dL
(D) 200mg/dL
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
Fasting blood sugar test:-A blood sample will be taken after an overnight fast.A fasting blood sugar level less than 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L) is normal. A fasting blood sugar level from 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. If it’s 126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) or higher on two separate tests, you have diabetes.
Oral glucose tolerance test:- For this test, you fast overnight, and the fasting blood sugar level is measured. Then you drink a sugary liquid, and blood sugar levels are tested periodically for the next two hours. A blood sugar level less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) is normal. A reading of more than 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) after two hours indicates diabetes. A reading between 140 and 199 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L and 11.0 mmol/L) indicates prediabetes.
Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1C) test. This blood test, which doesn’t require fasting, indicates your average blood sugar level for the past two to three months. It measures the percentage of blood sugar attached to hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. The higher your blood sugar levels, the more hemoglobin you’ll have with sugar attached. An HbA1C level of 6.5 percent or higher on two separate tests indicates that you have diabetes. An HbA1C between 5.7 and 6.4 percent indicates prediabetes. Below 5.7 is considered normal.
43. Chemical energy at the cellular level is in the form of
(A) NADH
(B) ATP
(C) NADPH
(D) SOD
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
The only form of energy a cell can use is a molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Chemical energy is stored in the bonds that hold the molecule together. Energy is stored when an ATP molecule is formed & Energy is released when an ATP molecule is broken down.
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45. Which material is predominantly used in the sphygmomanometer?
(A) Selenium
(B) Silver
(C) Mercury
(D) Cyanide
Answer with Explanation
Ans:C
A sphygmomanometer is an instrument for measuring blood pressure, typically consisting of an inflatable rubber cuff which is applied to the arm and connected to a column of mercury next to a graduated scale, enabling the determination of systolic and diastolic blood pressure by increasing and gradually releasing the pressure in the cuff.
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46. Which of the following effects is NOT mediated by Histamine type 2 receptors ?
(A) Vasodilatation
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Gastric acid secretion
(D) Tachycardia
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
Bronchoconstriction is caused by Hitamine type 1 (H-1) Receptor.
47. Which of the following drugs cannot be given as an intravenous bolus shot?
(A) Potassium chloride
(B) Adenosine
(C) Insulin
(D) Dextrose
Answer with Explanation
Ans:D
“bolus” is a rapid injection of medication. A syringe is inserted into your catheter to quickly send a one-time dose of drug into your bloodstream.
48. Which of these drugs is most likely to be used by a cardiologist?
(A) Streptokinase
(B) Anti-venom
(C) Doxycycline
(D) Sevelamer
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
49. Which of these diseases is a psychiatric disease?
(A) Schizophrenia
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Prolapse
(D) None
Answer with Explanation
Ans:A
50. Deficiency of what causes rickets?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Iron
(D) Copper
Answer with Explanation
Ans:B
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51. Which of these is not an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?
(A) Ulinastatin
(B) Simvastatin
(C) Pitavastatin
(D) Atorvastatin
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
52. THE normal WBC count range in the blood is
(A) 1.5 lakh to 4 lakh/cu.ml.
(B) 4000-10000/cu.ml.
(C) 4.5 million to 5.5 million /cu.ml.
(D) 100-400/cu.ml.
Answer
Ans: B; The normal number of WBCs in the blood is 4,500 to 11,000 WBCs per microliter (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/L).
53. The hardest substance in the human body is
(A) Bone
(B) Cartilage
(C) Dentine
(D) Ligament
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Pulp cavity contains blood vessel lymph vessels and nerve, and surrounding this is a hard substance called dentine. Outside the dentine of the crown is a thin layer of very hard substance, the enamel.
54. The nasogastric tube used for enteral feeding is called
(A) Steven’s tube
(B) Sengstaken Blackmore tube
(C) Ryle’s tube
(D) Foley’s tube
Answer with Explanation
Ans:C
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55. The best treatment modality for uncomplicated non-infective diarrhea is
(A) Antibiotics
(B) Loperamide
(C) Ranitidine
(D) ORS
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D (total osmolarity of ORS is 245 mOsm/l), Old Formula have 310 mOsm/l)
ORS Formula as per WHO
| New ORS formula WHO | g/L | Conc. | mM/L |
| NaCl | 2.6 | Na | 75 |
| KCI (Imp.contituents) | 13.5 | Cl | 65 |
| Trisodium citrate | 1.5 | K | 20 |
| water | 1 L | Glucose | 75 |
| Citrate | 10 | ||
| Total Osmolarity | 245 mM |
56. Rods and cones are part of
(A) Inner ear
(B) Liver
(C) Breast
(D) Eye
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
Note: Eye has Biconvex body;
In the Ratina, light sensitive layer consists rods & Cones cells which contains photosensitive pigments that convert light rays into nerve impulses.
Blind spot/Optic disc: the small area where the optic nerve leaves the eyes is called blind spot and it has no light sensitive cells (rod & cones)
57. Which of the following is not used sublingually?
(A) Isosorbide dinitrate
(B) Nifedepine
(C) Nitrofurantoin
(D) Nitroglycerine
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
Nitrofurantoin is orally administered urinary antiseptics (others: methenamine/hexamine & Nalidixic acid) while Phenazopyridine is used as Urinary Analgesic (efforts symptomatic relief of burning sensation, dysuria).
58. Laplace’s law is followed by all except
(A) Brain
(B) Heart
(C) Urinary bladder
(D) Stomach
Answer with Explanation
59. Which of the following organs in the human body is gender-specific?
(A) Spleen
(B) Prostate
(C) Lingula
(D) Pinna
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
The ear has external, middle, and inner portions. The outer ear is called the pinna . The prostate is a walnut-sized gland located between the bladder and the penis.
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60. Which of the following structures in the human body is NOT gender-specific?
(A) Seminal vesicle
(B) Fimbria
(C) Left atrium
(D) CowpeFs gland
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
61. The tympanic membrane is a part of
(A) Ear
(B) Diaphragm
(C) Heart
(D) Appendix
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Tympanic membrane, also called eardrum, thin layer of tissue in the human ear that receives sound vibrations from the outer air and transmits them to the auditory ossicles, which are tiny bones in the tympanic (middle-ear) cavity. Tympanic membrane, also called eardrum.
Ear has 3 parts ( Outer ear, Middle ear/tympanic cavity & Inner ear). Auditory ossicles- Malleus, Incus & Stapes small bones are present in middle ear.
62. The total volume of blood in the human body is around
(A) 1 litre
(B) 3 litres
(C) 5 litres
(D) 7 litres
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
63. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is not safe in pregnancy?
(A) Ramipril
(B) Atenolol
(C) Methyldopa
(D) Hydralazine
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are contraindicated during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy because of increased risk of fetal renal damage.
Drug contraindicate in Pregnancy: Trick: SAFE Moms Takes Really Good Care
Sulfonamides, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Tetracyclines, Ribavarin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol.
Drug safe in Pregnancy:
Better- Beta-blocker
mother- methydopa
care- clonidine
During- dihydropyridin (Amlodipine)
Hypertensive- Hydralazine
pregnancy- Prazocin
Antibiotic safe in Pregnancy: trick PCM ; Peniciilins, Cephalosporin, Macrolide antibitics
64. The proprietary name of a drug in drug nomenclature refers to
(A) Chemical name
(B) Generic name
(C) Brand name
(D) Scientific body name
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
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65. All these drugs are ineffective orally due to liver metabolism except
(A) Testosterone
(B) Insulin
(C) Lidocaine
(D) NTG
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B; All four drugs are ineffective orally. Among these Insulin is orally ineffective due to nature of Insulin is Popypeptide in nature, if taken orally, polypeptide/protein is digested in the stomach by proteolytic enzymes. here liver does not play any roll in degradation of Insulin.
Lidocaine: after oral ingestion, it has high first-pass metabolism in the liver. Testosterone: High first pass metabolism in liver. NTG: Undergo extensive first pass metabolism in liver.
66. Bioavailability of a drug by which route reaches 100%?
(A) Oral
(B) IV
(C) Nasal
(D) Topical
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B;
67. The knee cap is the common name for
(A) Patella
(B) Fibula
(C) Scaphoid
(D) Femur
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Patella: The kneecap by another name, the patella is the small bone that is in the front of the knee. The patella is a sesamoid bone, a little bone (sesamoid = like a sesame seed) that is embedded in a joint capsule or tendon.
68. The RNA contains all except
(A) Thymine
(B) Uracil
(C) Adenine
(D) Guanine
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
In DNA, there are four different bases: adenine (A) and guanine (G) are the larger purines. Cytosine (C) and thymine (T) are the smaller pyrimidines.
RNA also contains four different bases. Three of these are the same as in DNA: adenine, guanine, and cytosine. RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).
69. Goiter is a condition affecting the
(A) Lower limb
(B) Scrotum
(C) Thyroid
(D) Nasal cavity
Answer with Explanation
Ans:
Goitre:- enlargement of the thyroid gland.
- Cause of Goitre:
- Iodine deficiency
- Graves’ disease
- Hashimoto’s disease
A goiter: abnormal enlargement of your thyroid gland, mostly occurs due to iodine deficiency. which lead to decrease production of Thyroid hormone.
Several causes of the thyroid gland to enlarge. Some of the most common are:
- Iodine deficiency: iodine-deficient develop goiters when the thyroid enlarges in an effort to obtain more iodine. Iodine deficiency may be made worse by a diet high in hormone-inhibiting foods, such as cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower.
- Graves’ disease: occur when your thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone (hyperthyroidism). Antibodies produced by the immune system mistakenly attack the thyroid gland, causing it to produce excess thyroxine. This overstimulation causes the thyroid to swell.
- Hashimoto’s disease. A goiter can also result from an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism). Like Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s disease is an autoimmune disorder. But instead of causing your thyroid to produce too much hormone, Hashimoto’s damages your thyroid so that it produces too little.Sensing a low hormone level, your pituitary gland produces more TSH to stimulate the thyroid, which then causes the gland to enlarge.
- Multinodular goiter: In this condition nodules develop in both sides of your thyroid, resulting in overall enlargement of the gland.
- Thyroid cancer: Thyroid cancer is far less common than benign thyroid nodules.
- Pregnancy: A hormone produced during pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), may cause your thyroid gland to enlarge slightly.
- Inflammation: Thyroiditis is an inflammatory condition that can cause pain and swell in the thyroid.
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70. Which of these structures in the body is unpaired?
(A) Ureter
(B) Optic nerve
(C) Spleen
(D) Stapedius
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C;
The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. There are two ureters, one attached to each kidney.
Stapedius is the smallest muscle of the human body. It is located in the tympanic cavity in the middle ear, connecting the pyramidal eminence of petrous part of temporal bone to the posterior aspect of the neck of stapes. Optic nerve, second cranial nerve, which carries sensory nerve impulses from the more than one million ganglion cells of the retina toward the visual centers in the brain. It is also called the second cranial nerve or cranial nerve II.
71. Hoffman s elimination refers to drug elimination by
(A) Gel matrix formation
(B) Aerosol evaporation
(C) Molecular reorganization
(D) Enzymatic degradation
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
72. Normal glomerular filteration rate in adults is
(A) 75 ml/min
(B) 100 ml/min
(C) 200 ml/min
(D) 125 ml/min
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D;
Nephron is a functional unit of kidney & About 1200 ml of blood passes through the kidney every minute. From this blood, about 120-125 ml is filtered per minute by the kidney and this is known as glomerular filtration rate/GFR.
73. The functional unit of the lungs is
(A) Alveolus
(B) Nephron
(C) Myocyte
(D) Reticulocyte
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
74. Serum creatinine helps in measuring the function of
(A) Liver
(B) Kidney
(C) Lung
(D) Muscle
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B; Creatinine clearance value is 120-145 ml/mim for normal kidney.
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75. Which of these is not a part of liver function test?
(A) Prothrombin time
(B) sGOT
(C) SGPT
(D) Mean corpuscular volume
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
76. The term ESR stands for
(A) Extensive Sibilant Ronchi
(B) Extra-Sensory Receptors
(C) Equal Sinus Rhythm
(D) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a type of blood test that measures how quickly erythrocytes (red blood cells) settle at the bottom of a test tube that contains a blood sample. Normally, red blood cells settle relatively slowly. A faster-than-normal rate may indicate inflammation in the body.
77. VDRL test is associated with
(A) HIV
(B) Syphilis
(C) Gonorrhea
(D) Hepatitis B
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B; venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test is access syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection.
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78. Which of the following diseases is spread through the fecal-oral route?
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis C
(D) Hepatitis D
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
For all type Hepatitis details, please click here: https://youtu.be/vHwOwiWq1as
79. Malaria is caused by
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Parasite
(D) Mosquito
Answer with Explanation
Ans;C
80. The aperture of the human lenses is called
(A) Iris
(B) Cornea
(C) Retina
(D) Pupil
Answer with Explanation
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88. Insulin is synthesized in the cells of the pancreas.
(A) Alpha
(B) Beta
(C) Delta
(D) None
Answer with Explanation
Ans:B; Insulin is single chain peptide 51 AA. 1 mg Insulin = 28 International unit or 1 IU= 0.6 microgram insulin
89. Which of these is a sulfonylurea?
(A) Miglitol
(B) Acarbose
(C) Gliclazide
(D) Metformin
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C; Metformin- Biguanide derivatives; Miglitol & Acarbose: alpha- Glucosidase inhibitors;
90. Which of the following acts by inhibition of carbonic anhydrase?
(A) Spironolactone
(B) Acetazolamide
(C) Indapamide
(D) Chlorthalidone
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B
91. All are vitamin K dependant clotting factors except
(A) Factor 7
(B) Factor 9
(C) Factor 10
(D) Factor 13
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D; Vit k act as a cofactor at late stage in the sysnthesis of Factors VII, IX, X & Prothrombin.
92. Which of the following is not a second line anti Tubercular agent?
(A) Ethionamide
(B) Cyclosporine
(C) Capreomycin
(D) Cycloserine
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B (Cyclosporine/ciclosporin is a immuno-suppressant drug), While cycloserin is antibitic which is used in TB.;
First line anti-TB Drug: PERIS
Pyrazinamide, Ethanbutol, Rifampin/rifampicin, Isoniazid, Streptomycin
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93. The antitubercular agent associated with the side effect of optic neuritis is
(A) Isoniazid
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Pyrazinamide
(D) Ethambutol
Answer with Explanation
Ans:D
Isoniazid adverse effect: Peripheral neuritis & Hepatotoxicity. Vit B6/Pyridoxine is used to treat Peripheral neuritis.
Rifampicin: adverse effect:- Hepatotoxicity/hepatitis
Pyrazinamide adverse effect: Hepatotoxicity & Hyperuricemia
94. Which of the following is used in the treatment of Addison’s disease?
(A) steroid
(B) statin
(C) sulfasalazine
(D) sulfonylureas
Answer with Explanation
In Addison’s disease, also called adrenal insufficiency, adrenal glands (cortex part) produce too little cortisol (hydrocortisone) and, often, too little aldosterone. so Steroid drug Hydrocortisone/cortisol is given.
95. What is the dose of Telmisartan used in hypertension?
(A) 5 mg
(B) 16 mg
(C) 40 mg
(D) 50 mg
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
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96. What is the maximum daily dose of metformin?
(A) 500 mg
(B) 100 mg
(C) 2000mg
(D) 850 mg
Answer with Explanation
Ans: C
97. Which of these is NOT long-acting insulin?
(A) Degludec
(B) Lispro
(C) Glargine
(D) Detemir
Answer with Explanation
Ans: B; Insulin lispro is rapid acting insulin
98. Which condition commonly causes severe pain, redness and swelling of the first metatarsal joint?
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Gout
(C) SLE
(D) Osteoarthritis
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
99. Which of these is not an antibiotic drug ?
(A) Azithromycin
(B) Linezolid
(C) Cefpirome
(D) Oseltamavir
Answer with Explanation
Ans: D
Oseltamavir is an anti-viral drug.
100. Megaloblastic anemia occurs in deficiency of
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Copper
(D) Vitamin A
Answer with Explanation
Ans: A
Megaloblastic Anemia = Bone marrow produces abnormal RBCs which are not mature & have abnormal RBCs which are too large & too young. → can’t carry O2. Also caused by too vit B12 (cabalamine) or vit B9. Pernicions Anemia – due to deficiency of Intrinsic factor(Intrinsic factor & Vit B12 complex → Absorption as a complex).
Haemolytic Anaemia – Destruction of RBCs; Aplastic/Hypoplastic anemia – Bone marrow depression & Erythro deficiency; Microlytic hypochromic anemia – Iron deficiency
Normochronic – cell color normal
Normocytic – cell normal size
Microcytic – cell smaller than normal
Macrocytic – cell bigger than normal
Hypochronic – cells paler than normal
Haemolytic – rate of cell destruction raised
Megaloblastic – cells large & Immature cells [ vit B12 & B9 ↓ se ]
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