MICROBIOLOGY MCQ Quiz- Pharmacy | GPAT, DI, B.Pharma, D.Pharma & M.Pharm

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Answer key:- at the end of the page

1. Bacteria multiply by:

a) Replication cycle

b) Simple binary fission

c) Sexual reproduction

d) All of the above

2. Which of the following protects bacteria from antibiotics

a) Capsule

b) Cell membrane

c) Flagella

d) Fimbria

3. Bacteria without cell Wall is known as

a) Chlamydia

b) Rickettsia

c) Mycoplasma

d) Spirochetes

4. AIDS is transmitted through :

a) food

b) blood

c) semen

d) (b) & (c)

5. bacteria which cause syphilis:

a) Neisseria gonorrhea

b) Viencent angina

c) Treponema palladium

d) Yersinia pestis

6. The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax :

a) merozoites

b) sporozoites

c) schizont

d) trophozoite

7. mutualism means:

a) one partener benefits , other unaffected

b) both partner benefit

c) one partner benefit , other damaged

d) living together

8. Which of the following Transmitted by sexual intercourse

a) Toxoplasma

b) giardia lamblia

c) Trichomonas vaginalis

d) all of the above

9. Commensalisms means:

a) living together

b) one partner benefit , other damaged

c) both partner benefit

d) one partner benefits , other unaffected

10. Intermediate host of Trypansom

a) triatoma megista

b) sand fly

c) tse tse fly

d) anopheles

11. The cause of chaga’s disease:

a) Trypanosoma gambiense

b) Trypansoma rhodesiense

c) Trypansoma cruzi

d) Leishmania braziliense

12. Cause Kala- azar:

a) Leishmania tropica

b) Leishmania braziliense

c) Leishmania donovani

d) Leishmania mexicana

13. Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:

a) Anopheles

b) Sand fly

c) Human

d) Tse tse fly

14. Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :

a) Triatoma megista

b) Tse tse fly

c) Anopheles

d) Sand fly

15. Host for Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans

a) human

b) female Anopheles

c) rodents

d) lizard

16. Vectors for Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans

a) human

b) female Anopheles

c) rodents

d) lizard

17. Reproductive stages of malaria parasites take place in the

a) human

b) female Anopheles

c) rodents

d) lizard

18. all of these are transfusion transmitted disease except:

a) hepatitis B

b) hepatitis C

c) hepatitis A

d) AIDS

19. Bacillary dysentery is caused by:

a) salmonella

b) shigella

c) cholera

d) all of the above

20. False statement about Type A Hepatitis virus

a) Contain RNA

b) Contain DNA

c) Transmitted through the faecal route

d) None

21. A population of cell derived from a single cell are called

a) Monoclonal cells

b) Clones

c) Protoplasts

d) Sub culture

22. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are

a) Fungi

b) Commensels

c) Bacteriophages

d) Virion

23. Virus will contain

a) Cell wall

b) Cell membrane

c) DNA

d) DNA or RNA

24. Mesosomes in the bacteria are the part of

a) Plasma membrane

b) ER

c) Lysosomes

d) Golgi

25. The test used to defection of typhoid fever

a) WIDAL test

b) ELISA

c) Rosewaller test

d) Western blotting

26. Wasserman test is used to detect

a) Typhoid

b) Syphilis

c) Rhematoid arthritis

d) Typhus

27. Hepatitis is a

a) Bacterial Infection

b) Protozoal infection

c) Fungal infection

*d) Viral Infection

28. Dengue fever cause by

a) Bacterial

b) Virus

c) Fungi

d) Protozoa

29. Trichomoniasis disease is caused by

a) Bacteria

b) Virus

c) Fungi

d) Protozoa

30. Hensen’s disease is also known as

a) Tuberculosis

b) Leprosy

c) Tetanus

d) Typhoid

31. Which of the following is not a communicable disease?

a) Leprosy

b) Yellow fever

c) Malaria

d) Diabetes mallitus

32. Polio virus contain

a) DNA only

b) RNA only

c) DNA & RNA Both

d) None

33. Which of the following is a/an obligate intracellular parasite?

a) Virus

b) Bacteria

c) Fungi

d) All of these

34. Virus contains:

a) Both DNA & RNA

b) Only DNA

c) Only RNA

d) Both c & d

35. Bacteriophages / phages are

a) Viruses

b) Bacterial

c) Fungi

d) Rickettsiae

36. Match correctly

a) Bubonic plague – Pasteurella pestis

b) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertusis

c) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria gonorrhea

d) Meningitis – Neisseria meningitides

37. Scarlet fever/ sore throat causing pathogen

*a) Streptococcus pyrogens

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Salmonella typhi

d) None

38. Bacillary dysentery caused by

a) Salmonella shigella

b) Salmonella typhi

c) Salmonella paratyphi

d) Serratia marcescens

39. Diptheria caused by

a) B. anthrasis

b) Clostridium tetani

c) Clostridium botulinum

d) Corynebacterium diphtheria

40. A substance that causes micro-organism to grow at a slower than normal

a) Bacteriostate

b) Inhibitor / Bacteriophrenic

c) Sanitiser

d) Anti-metabolite

41. The tuberculin test includes?

a) Mantoux test

b) Heaf test

c) Tine test

d) All

42. Resistance of a host to pathogens & their toxic effect is called _______?

a) Immunity

b) Resistance

c) Pathogenicity

d) Opsonisation

e) Infection

43. Chains of immunoglobulin are held together by _________?

a) Sulfide bond

b) Disulfide Bond

c) H-bond

d) None

44. Which of the following Immunoglobulin can cross the placenta

a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgD

45. Which of the following Immunoglobulin involved in Allergic reaction?

a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgE

d) IgD

e) IgA

46. Which of the following is used for fumigation of OT, wards in Hospitals?

a) Alcohol

b) Aldehyde (Formaldehyde)

c) Cetrimide

d) Chlorhexidine

47. Schick test is used to Diagnose

a) Syphilis

b) Diptheria

c) Tuberculosis

d) Typhoid fever

48. Match correctly (test of Diagnosis & Disease)

a) Lepromin – Leprosy

b) Widal – Enteric fever

c) Rose water – Rhumetoid arthritis

d) Ouchterlory – Small pox

49. Dick test is used to diagnose

a) Scarlet fever

b) Enteric fever

c) Typhus fever

d) Brucellosis

50. Biological indicator in the Ionising radiation sterilization method

a) Bacillus subtilis varniger

b) Bacillus pumilis

c) Bacillus stearothermophilus

d) None

51. Clinical or subclinical infections lead to

a) Active natural immunity

b) Passive natural immunity

c) Active artificial immunity

d) Passive artificial immunity

52. Vaccination induces:

a) Active natural immunity

b) Passive natural immunity

c) Active artificial immunity

d) Passive artificial immunity

53. Artificial passive immunity may be induced by:

a) Antiserum injection

b) Vaccination

c) Maternal antibodies

d) All of the above

54. Which immunoglobulin class can pass through placenta?

a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgA

d) IgE

55. Which immunoglobulin class has maximum concentration in the human body?

a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgA

d) IgE

56. Which immunoglobulin class is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgA

*d) IgE

57. Which immunoglobulin class can bind to mast cells?

a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgA

d) IgE

58. Which of the following disease caused by acid-fast bacilli?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Dipththeria

c) Cholera

d) Typhoid

59. Tuberculosis can be controlled by vaccinating with

a) DPT

b) BCG

c) TAB

d) ARV

60. All of the following are viral infection Except

a) Influenza

b) Measles

c) Mumps

d) Hepatitis

e)Typhoid fever

61. All are bacterial infection Except?

a) Cholera

b) Plague

c) Rabies

d) Pertutis

e)  Tuberculosis

62. All of the following are used for prophylaxis or treatment EXCEPT?

a) Serum Albumin

b) Antitoxins

c) Antivenins

d) Globulins

63. The route of Administration for tuberculin is

a) Intradermal

b) S.C.

c) I.M

d) Intra-arterial

64. Streptokinase obtains from

a) coli

b) subtilis

c) B- hemolytic strptococci group ‘C’

d) Serratia Bacteria group

65. Peptidoglycan is a unique to

a) Viruses

b) Fungi cell wall

c) Bacterial cell wall

d) None

66. Which type of Bacteria retain the violet dye/ crystal violet:

a) Gram negative

b) Gram positive

c) Both

d) None

67. Gram negative bacteria cells retain dye:

a) Crystal voilet

b) Counter strain

c) Both

d) None

68. All genera are Gram positive Except:

a) Mycobacterium

b) Streptococcus

c) Salmonella

d) Clostridium

69. Original Fleming obtained Penicillin from the

a) Penicillin chryogenum

b) Penicillium notatum

c) Streptomycin griseus

d) None

70. Blood group was discovered by

a) Landsteiner

b) Mandal

c) Dr haragovind khurana

d) None

Answer Key

Q. NoAnsQ. No.Ans
(1).b11c
(2).a12c
(3).c13c
(4).d14c
(5).c15a
(6).b16b
(7).b17b
(8).c18c
(9).d19c
(10).c20b
Answer key Microbiology MCQ
Q. NoAnsQ. No.Ans
(21).b31d
(22).c32b
(23).d33a
(24).a34d
(25).a35a
(26).b36
(27).d37a
(28).b38a
(29).d39d
(30).b40b
Answer key Microbiology MCQ
Q. NoAnsQ. No.Ans
(41).d51a
(42).a52c
(43).b53a
(44).b54a
(45).c55a
(46).b56d
(47).b57d
(48).58a
(49).a59b
(50).b60c
Answer key Microbiology MCQ
Q. NoAnsQ. No.Ans
(61).c
(62).a
(63).a
(64).c
(65).c
(66).b
(67).b
(68).c
(69).b
(70).a
Answer key Microbiology MCQ

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