Q. 1 The First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics act,1940 prescribes
(A) Standards for cosmetics
(b) Standards devices for medical
(c) Authoritative books of ayurvedic, sidhha and unani tibb system
(d) Standards of the drug to be complied with by imported drugs
Q. 2. Which of the following is not a ‘drug’ as per the law?
(A) Empty gelatin capsule
(B) Mosquito repellent cream
(C) Substances for diagnosis of disease
(D) None of the above
Q. 3. Who among the following is the Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board?
(A) The Drugs Controller of India
(B) The President of Pharmacy Council of India
(C) The President of ,Medical Council of India
(D) The Director General of Health Services
4. The Central Drugs Laboratory is situated in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Lucknow
Q. 5 A drug not labelled in the prescribed manner shall be treated as’ .
(A) adulterated drug
(B) spurious drug
(C) misbranded drug
(D) miscellaneous drug
Q. 6. Powers of the Inspectors appointed under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 are mentioned -under which of the following Sections of the Act?
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Q. 7. Minimum penalty for selling any adulterated or spurious drug causing death or grievous harm to any person in India is
(A) imprisonment of ten years and fine of ten -lakh rupees
(B) imprisonment of five years and fine of ten thousand rupees
(C) imprisonment of ten years and fine of ten thousand rupees
(D) imprisonment of five years and fine of ten lakh rupees
Q. 8. A license to import drugs specified in schedule X to the Drugs and cosmetic rules, 1945 shall be issued in
(A) Form 8
(B) Form 8A
(C) Form 10
(D) Form 10A
Q.9. If any person willfully obstructs a Drugs Inspector in the, exercise of his powers, then this is a
(A) Noncognizable and nonbailable offence
(B) Noncognizable and bailable offence
(C) Nognizable and nonbailable offence
(D) Nognizable and bailable offence
Q. 10. Establishments licensed for sale of drugs shall be inspected at least
(A) Not less than once in a month
(B) Not less than once in a year
(C) Not less than once in every two years
(D) Not less than once in every three
Q. 11. An application for grant of a license to sell drugs other than those specified in Schedule X shall be made in
(A) Form 18
(B) Form 19
(C) Form 20
D) Form 21
Q. 12. An original licence to sell drugs, unless sooner suspended or cancelled, shall be valid for
(A) two years
(B) three years
(C) four Years
(D) five Years
13. Minimum area of the shop to obtain a wholesale license to sell and stock drugs shall be
(A) five square meters
(B) ten square meters
(C) fifteen square meters
(d) Twenty square meters
14. A licensee shall maintain an Inspection Book in which of the following ‘Forms’ under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A) Form 35
(B) Form 36
(C) Form 37
(D) Form 38
15. A competent technical staff for the manufacture of drugs must be’
(A) A graduate in pharmacy with at least 18 months’ practical experience in the manufacture of drugs
(B) A diploma in pharmacy with at least 24 months practical experience in the manufacture of drugs
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of above
16. The warning, ‘To be sold by retail on the prescription of a registered Medical Practitioner only’, shall appear on the label of
(A) Schedule H drug
(B) Schedule X drug
(C) Schedule M drug and Schedule X drug
(D) Schedule G drug
17. Which of the following diseases (which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure) is not covered under Schedule J to the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Obesity
(C) Hypertension
(D) Parkinsonism
Q. 18. No colour is permitted be used In drug’s except mentioned in the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 under
(A) Rule 126
(B) Rule 127
(C) Rule 128
(D) Rule 129
Q. 19. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of cosmetics are mentioned in the Drugs & Cosmetic Rules, 1945 under
(A) Schedule M
(B) Schedule MI
(C) Schedule MII
(D) Schedule MIII
Q.20. Fluoride content in toothpaste shall not be more than
(A) 500 p.p.m.
(B) 100 p.p.m.
(C) 1000 p.p.m.
(D) 1500 p.p.m.
Q. 21. Schedule F to the D & C Rules, 1945 prescribe the
(A) Requirements for the functioning & operation of blood bank
(B) Standards for surgical dressings
(C) List of Drugs to be prescribed
(D) Standards for disinfectant fluids
Q. 22. Every drug manufacturer shall maintain manufacturing & analytical records to the D & C Rules 1945 as per
(A) Schedule M
(B) Schedule U
(C) Schedule V
(D) Schedule T
Q. 23. Under Schedule Y to the D & C Rules 1945 responsibility of a sponsor includes
(A) Review trial protocol to ensure rights and safety of the trial subjects
(B) Conduct of the trial according to the GCP guidelines
(C) Provision of adequate medical care to the participant for any adverse events
(D) submission of status reports on the clinical trail to be licensing authority
Q. 24. Study condition for long term stability testing of new drugs is
(A) 30 ºC ± 2 ºC/ 65% RH ± 5% RH
(B) 30 ºC ± 2 ºC/ 75% RH ± 5% RH
(C) 40 ºC ± 2 ºC/ 65% RH ± 5% RH
(D) 40 ºC ± 2 ºC/ 75% RH ± 5% RH
Q. 25. Schedule FF to D& C Rules 1945 contains the list of
(A) Drug which can be marketed under generic names only
(B) Drugs which are habit-forming
(C) Standard for ophthalmic preparation
(D) Drugs which are exempted from certain provisions applicable to manufacturing
Q. 26. Schedule S to the D&C Rules 1945 contains the list of
(A) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
(B) Standards for cosmetics
(C) Life period of Drugs
(D) Pack size of Drugs
Q. 27. Chloropropamide & Dexamphetamine drugs belongs to
(A) Schedule G & Schedule X respectively
(B) Schedule X & Schedule G respectively
(C) Schedule H & Schedule Q respectively
(D) Schedule Q & Schedule M respectively
Q. 28. The Drug Consultative Committee shall be constituted by
(A) The parliament
(B) The state Government
(C) The central Government
(D) Any of the above
Q. 29. Example of Schedule C Drugs
(A) Fish liver oil
(B) Insulin
(C) Ergot
(D) Barbital
Q. 30. Which of the following drugs are prohibited to be imported?
(A) Spurious Drugs
(B) Toilet Preparation
(C) Schedule H Drugs
(D) All of the above
Q. 31. The person in charge of State Drugs Laboratory is
(A) Assistant Drugs Controller
(B) Drug Controller
(C) Government Analyst
(D) Drug Inspector
Q. 32. Premises licensed for sale of drugs having services of a Registered Pharmacist but where drugs are not compounded against prescriptions is called as
(A) Pharmacy
(B) Chemist & Druggist
(C) Drug Store
(D) All of the above
Q. 33. Analysis & Test of samples of vaccines are carried out at
(A) Central Indian Phamacopoeia Laboratory, Ghaziabad
(B) Pasteur Institute of India, Coonoor
(C) Central Drugs Testing Laboratory, Thane
(D) Central Research Institute, Kasauili
Q. 34. Digitalis belongs to
(A) Schedule C
(B) Schedule C(1)
(C) Schedule G
(D) Schedule X
Q. 35. The samples of drugs taken by the Drug Inspector are sent for analysis to
(A) the Drug Controller
(B) any Testing Laboratory
(C) the Government Analyst
(D) any of the above
Q. 36. Drug Inspector shall be deemed to be public servant under Section
(A) 12 of IPC
(B) 21 of IPC
(C) 42 of IPC
(D) 48 of IPC
Q. 37. Application for the issue of a permit to import small quantities of drugs for personal use shall be made in
(A) Form 12
(B) Form 12A
(C) Form 12AA
(D) Form 12B
Q. 38. Drug sample shall be sent to the Government Analyst for test or Analysis by a Drugs Inspector
(A) Through registered post
(B) in a sealed packet
(C) together with a memorandum in form 1
(D) all of the above
Q. 39. Licensed manufacturer shall maintain the reference samples of Drugs (other than those specified in Schedule C,C(1) and X) till
(A) 3 months after the date of expiry of the drugs
(B) 6 months after the date of expiry of the drugs
(C) 9 months after the date of expiry of the drugs
(D) 12 months after the date of expiry of the drugs
Q. 40. A drug which is manufactured under a name which belongs to another drug is called as
(A) Adulterated drugs
(B) Spurious Drugs
(C) Misbranded drug
(D) All
Q. 41. The main object of the pharmacy act 1948 is to
(A) Control the advertisement of drugs
(B) Regulate the profession of Pharmacy
(C) Prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals
(D) all of the above
Q. 42. A person is called as “ Registered Pharmacist”, if he is
(A) Holding diploma in pharmacy
(B) Having sufficient experience in pharmacy profession
(C) having his name entered in the State Register of pharmacists
(D) Holding degree in Pharmacy
Q. 43. Who among the following is not a member of the pharmacy counselling of India?
(A) director General Health Services
(B) the drug controller of India
(C) the director Central drug laboratory
(D) the director Central Research Institute
Q. 44. State Pharmacy Council are constituted for
(A) 5 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 10 years
(D) the periods specified under the interstate agreements
Q. 45. The vice president of the pharmacy counselling of India is
(A) appointed by the president of PCI
(B) elected by its member
(C) nominated by the central government
(D) selected by UGC
Q. 46. Minimum age of a person to be registered as a pharmacist is
(A) 21 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 16 years
(D) no age limit
Q. 47. The name of a registered pharmacist can be removed from the register, if
(A) his name was entered by error in the register
(B) his name was introduced to miss representation of a material fact
(C) he was convicted of any offence
(D) any of the above
Q. 48. The number of person elected for the pharmacy counselling of India from the teaching profession is
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Q. 49. A person who falsely claimed himself as a registered pharmacist shall be punishable with a
(A) fine of 500 rupees on first conviction and imprisonment of six month on the any subsequent conviction
(B) fine of 5000 rupees on the first conviction and imprisonment of six month on any subsequent connection
(C) fine of 500 rupees on the first conviction and imprisonment of 3 month on any subsequent conviction
(D) fine of 5000 rupees on the first conviction and imprisonment of 3 month on any subsequent conviction
Q. 50. Regulations that prescribed minimum standard of education required for qualification as a pharmacist is called as
(A) pharmacy regulation
(B) teaching regulation
(C) education regulation
(D) central pharmaceutical regulation
Q. 51. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance Act was passed in the year
(A) 1940
(B) 1955
(C) 1985
(D) 2000
Q. 52. Coca, hemp and opium are defined under
(A) the pharmacy at
(B) the drug and cosmetic act
(C) the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance act
(D) the poison act
Q. 53. Plant of the species of Papaver, from which opium or any phenanthrene alkaloid can be extracted,, is called
(A) opium poppy
(B) opium derivative
(C) heroin
(D) all of the above
Q. 54. Cannabis means
(A) hemp
(B) charas
(C) ganga
(D) all of these
Q.55. Opium does not include any preparation containing not more than
(A) 0.2 % morphine
(B) 0.02% morphine
(C) 0.1 % morphine
(D) 0.01 % morphine
Q. 56. Office Romance all part except
(A) flower
(B) stamp
(C) route
(D) seed
Q. 57. Prepared opium
(A) is an extract suitable for smoking
(B) is any medicine containing opium
(C) is also called as hemp
(D) as under gone the process to adapt it for medicinal use
Q. 58. Ganja means which of the following part of the plant?
(A) only seeds
(B) only leaves
(C) on the flooring or fruiting tops
(D) all part of the plant
Q. 59. Opium shall be manufactured only by the
(A) authorised persons
(B) central Government opium factories
(C) licence holders
(D) cultivators
Q. 60. Punishment for consumption of any narcotic drug of psychotropic substance is
(A) imprisonment upto 6 month or fine upto 20000 rupees or both
(B) rigorous imprisonment upto 6 month are fine upto 10000 rupees for both
(C) imprisonment upto two years of fine upto 20000 rupees or both
(D) regress imprisonment up to one year or fine up to 20000 rupees or both
Q. 61. The drug (price control) order, currently in force, was placed in the year
(A) 1987
(B) 1985
(C) 2010
(D) 2005
Q. 62. Who has the power to fix the ceiling price of the scheduled formulation?
(A) state government
(B) central government
(C) loksabha
(D) rajyasabha
Q. 63. Which of the following is the schedule BULK drug?
(A) alprazolam
(B) codeine
(C) salbutamol
(D) amikacin
Q. 64. Contravention of any provision of the drug price control order shall be punishable with the provision of the
(A) the drug and cosmetic act 1940
(B) narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance act 1985
(C) essential commodities act 1955
(D) industrial (development and Regulation) Act 1952
Q. 65. As per DPCO, every manufacturer shall submit yearly information on turnover and allocation of sale and expenses in
(A) FORM II
(B) FORM IV
(C) FORM V
(D) FORM VI
Q. 66. The drug price control order is applicable to
(A) to Ayurvedic medicines
(B) HOMOEOPATHIC medicines
(C) unani medicines
(D) none of the above
Q. 67. Under DPCO, an application to revise the ceiling price for scheduled formation shall be submitted by the manufacturer in
(A) form VI
(B) FORM V
(C) FORM III
(D) FORM II
Q. 68. The poisonous Act was passed in the year
(A) 1904
(B) 1910
(C) 1914
(D) 1919
Q. 69. Who has the power to regulate POSSESION for sale and sale of any poison?
(A) state government
(B) central government
(C) DRUG controller
(D) parliament
Q. 70. As per the provision act in India any provision
(A) can be imported freely
(B) cannot be imported at all
(C) can be imported only under the valid licence
(D) can be imported with permission of the state governor
Q. 71. Unlawful sale of any poison in India is punishable with
(A) imprisonment upto 3 month or fine of 500 rupees or both
(B) imprisonment upto three years for fine of 5000 rupees for both
(C) imprisonment upto 3 month or fine or 5000 rupees or both
(D) imprisonment upto 3 year or fine of 500 rupees or both
Q. 72. The medical and toilet preparation excise duty act came into force in
(A) in 1940
(B) 1945
(C) 1950
(D) 1955
Q. 73. Medicinal and toilet preparation (excise duty) act, manufacture of any dutiable goods without a valid licence is punishable with
(A) imprisonment upto 6 year or fine of 20000 rupees or both
(B) imprisonment upto 6 month or fine of 2000 rupees or both
(C) imprisonment upto 6 months or fine of 20000 rupees or both
(D) inprisonment up to 6 years or fine of 2000 or both
Q. 74. Non bonded manufactory shall be inspect by the officer at least
(A) once every month
(B) once every two months
(C) once every 6 months
(D) once every year
Q. 75. Application for licence to manufacture goods liable duty of Excise, under the medicinal and toilet preparation excise duties act shall be made in
(A) FORM A.L.1
(B) FORM A.L.2
(C) FORM A.L.3
(D) FORM A.L.4
Q. 76. The drug and magic remedies (objectionable advertisement) rules came into force in the year
(A) 1954
(B) 1955
(C) 1956
(D) 1957
Q. 77. Publication of the advertisement is prohibited that refers to the use of any drug for the treatment of
(A) cancer
(B) plague
(C) tuberculosis
(D) all of these
Q. 78. Person contravening any provision of the drug and magic remedies objectionable advertisement act is punishable with
(A) imprisonment up to 3 months or fine or both
(B) imprisonment up to four months or fine or both
(C) imprisonment up to five months or fine or both
(D) imprisonment upto 6 month or fine or both
Q. 79. Which of the following is a magic remedy?
(A) Talisman
(B) Mantra
(C) Kavacha
(D) of the above
Q. 80. Which of the following is violation of drugs and magic remedies objectionable advertisement act
(A) display the sign board by a registered medical practitioner offering treatment for any disease
(B) publication of a book only for scientific purpose suggesting the use of address in the treatment of any disease
(C) advertisement relating to any drug sent confidentially to a registered medical practitioner
(D) none of the above
Q. 81. The prevention of cruelty to animals Act was intact in the year
(A) 1940
(B) 1950
(C) 1960
(D) 1970
Q. 82. Which of the following does not come under the quality to animals?
(A) experiments on animal for new Discovery useful for saving human life
(B) willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious to animals
(C) treating any animal is so as to subject it to unnecessary pain or suffering
(D) failure to provide sufficient food, drink, or shelter to the animal by its owner
Q. 83. Experiments on animal for the discovery of New drug is allowed under which of the following section of the prevention of cruelty to animals act?
(A) section 4
(B) section 14
(C) section 24
(D) section 34
Q. 84. Who among the following has the responsibility to establish Society for prevention of cruelty to animals (SPCA)?
(A) central government
(B) state Government
(C) animal welfare board
(D) institutes carrying out animal experiments
Q. 85. Animal welfare Board of India constituted under the prevention of cruelty to animals act is situated in
(A) in New Delhi
(B) mumbai
(C) chennai
(D) kolkata
Q. 86. The drug consultative committee is constituted under which of the following section of the drug and cosmetic act?
(A) section 3
(B) section 3
(C) section 7
(D) section 9
Q. 87. Function of the drug consultative committee is to
(A) make rules to implement the drug and cosmetic act
(B) give consultation to pharmaceutical company
(C) advise the government in issue related to the drug and cosmetic act
(D) all of the above
Q. 88. Standards of quality for drugs are prescribed in
(A) the first schedule to the drug and cosmetic act 1940
(B) the second schedule to the drug and cosmetic act 1940
(C) the schedule D to the drug and cosmetic act rules 1945
(D) the schedule J to the drug and cosmetic rules 1945
Q. 89. Cosmetic means any article intended to
(A) affect the structure of the human body
(B) destruct vermins or insects
(C) alter the appearance of human body
(D) all of the above
Q. 90. Manufacturer in relation to any drug does not include the process of
(A) ornamenting
(B) labelling
(C) packaging
(D) compounding
Q. 91. Which of the following does not come under the prohibition of manufacture of drugs?
(A) manufacturer for sale of any drug which is not of standard quality
(B) manufacturer for sale of any drug without a valid licence
(C) manufacturer for sale of any misbranded drugs
(D) manufacturer of drugs for the purpose of examination, test or analysis
Q. 92.The application for grant of licence to manufacture drugs other than those specified in schedule C, C(1) AND X shall be made in and corresponding licence shall be issued in
(A) forms 27B and 28B respectively
(B) forms 27 and 28 respectively
(C) form 24F and 25F respectively
(D) forms 24 and 25 respectively
Q. 93. Applicable fee for taking licence to manufacturer drugs other than those specified in schedule C, C(1) & X are
(A) licence fee of 6000 rupees and inspection fee of 1000 rupees
(B) licence fee of 5000 rupees and inspection fee of 1500 rupees
(C) licence fee of 6000 rupees and inspection fee of 1500
(D) licence fee of 5000 rupees and inspection fee of 1000 rupees
Q. 94. Application for permission to import for manufacturer new drug to undertake clinical trial should be made in
(A) form 21
(B) form 44
(C) form 11
(D) form 12A
Q. 95. The latest amendment in the drug and cosmetic act made in the year
(A) 1999
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Q. 96. Specific requirement for manufacturer of sterile product and parenteral preparation are prescribed in which of the following part of the Schedule M?
(A) part IA
(B) part IB
(C) part IC
(D) part ID
Q. 97. The pharmacy counselling of India Education regulation for the diploma course in pharmacy that is currently in force was passed in the year
(A) 1981
(B) 1985
(C) 1991
(D) 2015
Q. 98. Name of a person is entered in the center register on the pharmacy act after
(A) he submits an application for registration to Central council in the prescribed manners
(B) he submits an application for registration to the state counselling in the prescribed manner
(C) reciept of the report of registration of a person in the register for a state
(D) both B and C
Q. 99. Who among the following shall not be a member of State counselling under the pharmacy act 1948?
(A) the registered pharmacist elected from the state
(B) registered pharmacist nominated by the state government
(C) the government analyst
(D) the director of Central drug laboratory
Q. 100.Which of the following is not a psychotropic substance under the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance act?
(A) barbital
(B) estazolam
(C) albendazole
(D) mazindol
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