ISRO Pharmacist Previous Year Question Paper Solved 2017

Vikram Sarabhai Space center (ISRO) was conducted a written test for the selection of the post of Pharmacist on 10 Dec 2017. ThePharmapedia team publish a Pharmacist Question paper with an answer key.

Syllabus: Diploma in Pharmacy level. Download syllabus here

Question Patten: Most of The questions were asked form GPAT 1992 paper

Selection Process (General)

The Written Test will be conducted, Based on the written test scores, required no. of candidates alone shall be called for skill test. Written

The test will be conducted in such a way that theoretical and practical knowledge of the candidate is tested covering both breadth and depth of the prescribed curriculum. Marks obtained in the skill test will not be considered for selection. The skill test will be evaluated on a 100-point scale with a minimum 60% for qualification. From amongst candidates who qualify in the skill test with minimum 60% marks, empanelment will be done in the order of marks obtained in the written test. In case of a tie in the written scores, the academic scores of the notified qualification will be the tie-breaker.

ISRO Pharmacist Paper 2017

1. The Sweetening agent commonly used in the chewable tablet formula is

a. sucrose

b. cyclamate sodium

c. Saccharin sodium

d. mannitol

Ans: D

2. Sub-coatings given to the tablets

a. To increase bulk

b. To avoid deterioration due to microbial attack

c. To prevent the solubility in acidic media

d. To avoid stickiness

Ans: A

3. The pH of a pharmaceutical buffer system can be calculated by

a. pH partition theory

b. Noyes Whitney law

c. Henderson Hasselbalch equation

d. Michaelis Menten equation

Ans: C

{\displaystyle {\ce {pH}}={\ce {p}}K_{{\ce {a}}}+\log _{10}\left({\frac {[{\ce {Base}}]}{[{\ce {Acid}}]}}\right)}
Henderson–Hasselbalch equation

4 The pharmacy council of India is constituted by the (Also GPAT 1992)

a. Central government

b. State government

c. Parliament

d. Legislative assembly

Ans: A

5. Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface. This phenomenon is known as (Also GPAT 1992)
(a) Picking

Ans: A

6. Among the following preparations, which one will be the most irritating to the eye

(a) Purified water
(b) 0.7% NaCl solution
(c) 0.9% NaCl solution
(d) 1% NaCl solution

Ans: D

7.Bubble point test-is done to determine (GPAT 1992)

(a) The surface tension of the liquid in capillary tubes
(b) The viscosity of the liquid in ampoules
(c) The pH of 1% solution
(d) The volume of a solution stored in a specific container

Ans: A

8.As per GMP permitted limit of solid contents in water for injections is (GPAT 1994)

(a) 100 ppm
(b) 1.0 ppm
(c) 0.7 ppm
(d) 10.0 ppm

Ans: D

9.License for wholesale of drugs specified in schedule C and C; is issued in the form

(a) 20A
(b) 20B
(c) 21B
(D) 22A

Ans: C

10.In capsules, rotofil is used for filling

(a) Powders
(b) Pellets
(c) Liquids
(d) Corrosive liquids

Ans: B

11. Which of the following commonly available large volume dextrose solution for intravenous use is isotonic

(a) 2.5% W/V
(b) 5.0% W/V
(c) 10% W/V
(d) 20% W/V

Ans: B

12.Which is the ideal combination for testing the solubility of an enteric-coated capsule in alkaline medium? (GPAT 1990)

(a) Sodium bicarbonate + Potassium» hydroxide + Pepsin
(B) Sodium bicarbonates+, Sodium tauroglycocholate + Papain
(c) Sodiumbicarbonate + Pancreatin + Sodium tauroglycocholate
(d) Sodium bicarbonate + Bilirubin

Ans: C

13. Which one of the following is a pseudoalkaloid?

(a) Caffeine
(b) Ephedrine
(c) Morphine
(d) Codeine

Ans: A

14.Which vitamin contains a steroidal structure?

(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) None of the above

Ans: C

15. Morphine is present in

(a)Atropa belladonna
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Ricinus communis
(d) Solanum nigrum

Ans: B

16. Emetine, an alkaloid of Ipecacuanha acts as

(a) Antimalarial
(b) Anti-diarrhoeal
(c) Antiseptic
(d) None

Ans: B

17. Patient with Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is treated with Dapsone. He will suffer from

(a) Haemolytic anaemia

(b) Pernicious anaemia

(c) Diarrhoea

(d) None of the above

Ans: A

18. Which one of the following drugs is not a long-acting benzodiazepine?

(a) Diazepam
(b) Clonazepam
(c) Flurazepam
(d) Midazolam

Ans: D

19. Which antibiotic is used for the treatment of both tuberculosis as well as leprosy?

(a) Isoniazid (INH)
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Clofazimine
(d) Ethionamide

Ans: B

20. All the following are stimulant purgatives except

(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Castor oil
(c) Senna
(d) Liquid. paraffin

And: D (Liq. paraffin- stool softner)

21. Mast cell stabilizer is

(a) Salbutamol
(b) Theophylline
(c) Sodium cromoglycate
(d) Atropine

Ans: C

22. Anticholinergic used as bronchodilator is

(a) Pilocarpine
(b) ipratropium
(c) Prazosin
(d) Salbutamol

Ans: B

23. Mucolytics are

(a) Bromohexine
(b) Carbocysteine
(c) Acetylcysteine
(d) All of the above


24. All except …….. are antibiotics obtained from fungi

(a) Penicillin
(b) Griseofulvin
(c) Cephalosporin
(d) Bacitracin

Ans: D

25. Some bacteria develop drug resistance very rapidly except

(a) Staphylococci
(b) Coliforms
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(D) Tubercle bacilli

26. Clavulanic acid or Sulbactum is used in combination with Amoxycillin against H.influenzae

(a) Clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamase produced by, H.influenzae
(b) Clavulanic acid is an acid-resistant antibiotic
(C) Clavulanic acid is very susceptible to H.influenzae
(d) None of the above

Ans: A

27. Second-line antitubercular-drug is

(a) Streptomycin
(b) Capreomycin
(c) Ethambutol
(d) Rifampin

Ans: B

28. All first-line TB, drugs are bactericidal except

(a) INH
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(d) Pyrazinamide

Ans: C

29. All the following except contain imidazole ring

(a) Clotrimazole
(b) Econazole
(c) Miconazole
(d) Ketoconazole

Ans: None: All contain an Imidazole ring

30. In congestive cardiac failure, digitalis glycosides are used because it increases

(a) Heart rate
(b) Force of myocardial contraction
(c) Venous pressure
(d) Cardiac filling pressure

Ans: B

31. In order to produce characteristic pharmacological action, a drug must always

(a) Reach high blood levels
(b) Absorb from G.l.tract readily
(c) Achieve adequate concentration at the site of action
(d) Excreted unchanged in urine

Ans: C

32. Heparin prevents blood coagulation by

(a) Inhibiting thrombin catalyzed conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(b) Precipitate blood Calcium, thereby prevent coagulation reaction
(c) Inhibiting enzyme reactions
(d) Converting’ ionized calcium by chelation

Ans: A

33. Which is an antimetabolite?

(a) Fluorouracil
(b) Nitrogen mustard
(c) Cyclophosphamide
(d) Chlorambucil

Ans: A

34. Selective beta-2 bronchodilator used for the treatment of status asthmaticus is

(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Isoetharine
(c) Terbutaline
(D) Dirabuterol

Ans: C

35. Belladonna alkaloid (atropine) is used prior to administration of a general anesthetic agent due to

(a) inhibition of G.l.T. motility
(b) Prevention of miosis
(c) Inhibition of salivation and secretion of respiratory tract
(d) Causing skeletal muscle relaxation

Ans: C

36. Drug of choice in amoebic dysentery is

(a) Penicillin G
(b) Niridazole
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Tetracycline

Ans: C

37. Clinically used Uricosuric agent is

(a) Diazepam
(b) Sulfinpyrazone
(c) Phenylbutazone
(d) Phenytoin

Ans: B (Uricosuric agent – Probenecid, Sulpinpyrazone)

38. The metal used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis is

(a) Ag
(b) Au
(c) Cu
(d) Sb

Ans: A

39. The drug very effective in the treatment of acute gout is

(a) Aspirin
(b) Acetaminophen
(c) phenylbutazone
(d) Indomethacin

Ans: D

40. The Antitubercular drug inhibiting RNA synthesis

(a) Streptomycin
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Rifampicin

Ans: D

41. The Antitubercular drug inhibiting Protein synthesis with potential for ototoxic effect is

(a) Ethambutol
(b) Dapsone
(c) Streptomycin
(d) INH

Ans: C

42. Methotrexate is an antagonist of

(a Cobalamine
(b) Folic acid
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Tocopherol

Ans: B

43. All are the side effects of Chloroquine except

(a) Blurring of vision

(b) Haemolytic anaemia

(c) Psychotic episodes

(d) Skin rash


44. Antidote of organophosphorus poisoning is

(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) atenolol

(d) Tubocurarine

Ans: C

45. Which of the following agents is a cholinesterase reactivator?

(a) Aspirin
(b) Pilocarpine
(c) Scopolamine
(d) Pralidoxime

Ans: D

46. Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is –

(a) Diosgenin
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Ouabain

Ans: C

47. The choice of drug to treat Cerebral Malaria is

(a) Mepacrine
(b) Amodiaquine
(c) Quinine
(a) Primaquine

Ans: C

48. All of the following statements concerning Sulfonamides are correct except

(a) Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase

(o) Crystaluria may occur

(c) They are antimetabolites of PABA

(d) They are bacteriostatic

49. Optic neuritis is a chief adverse effect of

(a) Sulpha drugs
(b) Pyrazinamide
(c) Rifampicin
(d) Ethambutol

Ans: D

50. Which of the following is a Macrolide antibiotic?

(a) Erythromycin
(b) Spiramycin
(c) lincomycin
(d) Vancomycin

Ans: A

51. steroidal antibiotic is


(b) Bacitracin

(c)  Aminophylline

(d)  Clindamycin

Ans: A


Bacitracin and the polymyxins are polypeptide antibiotics & Bacitracin a  affects cell wall synthesis. The lincosamide family of antibiotics includes lincomycin and clindamycin, both of which inhibit protein synthesis. Aminophylline (soluble ethylenediamine salt salt of theophylline) is a bronchodilator.

52. The preferred treatment of status epilepticus is intra venous administration of

(a) Ethosuximide

(b) Sodium valproate

(c) Diazepam

(d) Chloramphenicol

Ans: C


The pharmacological treatment of choice at present consists of intravenous infusion of either diazepam or lorazepam.

53. Bromocriptine is used to treat amenorrhea because

(a)  stimulates the ovary

(b) It stimulates the GnRH release

(c) It suppresses the prolactin release

(d) It stimulates FSH release

Ans: C


Ans: C

Exp: In women, prolactin acts with other hormones on the mammary gland during pregnancy to develop lactation and after birth to maintain it. But  Hyperprolactinemia causes impotence in men and amenorrhea and infertility in women.

Dopaminergic agonists inhibit prolactin release and antagonists, such as the antipsychotic drugs, increase release of Prolactin.

54. The primary mechanism of action of Local Anaesthetic is the blockade of

(a) Potassium channel

(b) Calcium channel

(c) Sodium channel

(d) All of the above

Ans: C


The application of a local anesthetic to a nerve that is actively conducting impulses will inhibit the inward migration of Na. The local anesthetics interfere with the generation of the action potential, namely, transient voltage-dependent rise in the permeability of the membrane to Na.

55. Long term use of Glucocorticoids induce

(a) Hypotension

(b) Hepatotoxicity

(c)  Osteoporosis

(D)  Bradycardia



The most damaging and therapeutically limiting adverse effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy is impairment of bone formation. By enhancing bone resorption and decreasing bone formation, glucocorticoids decrease bone mass and increase the risk of fractures.

Adrenal Gland: Medulla part – Adrenaline (to meet short term stress) and cortex part- divided into three

concentric zones: the zona glomerulosa (secretes Aldosterone-Mineralocorticoid), zona fasciculate (secretes Glucocorticoids – Hydrocortisone withstand long term stress), and zona reticularis (Sex steroids).

56.Clomiphene is used to treat infertility because it stimulates

(a) LH secretion

(b) Follicular development

(c) Ovulation

(d) Uterus activity

Ans: C


SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATORS (SERMs) are nonhormonal pharmacological agents that bind to ERs. A characteristic feature of the SERMs is that a given agent will act as an estrogen agonist in one or more tissues and as an estrogen antagonist in one or more other estrogen target organs. Tamoxifen citrate, clomiphene citrate and raloxifene are examples of nonsteroidal SERMs. Induction of ovulation by clomiphene citrate is the result of stimulation of FSH and LH release. Estrogens generally exert a negative-feedback inhibition on FSH and LH secretion by means of a suppression of GnRH from the hypothalamus. Antagonism of this feedback system results in a surge of FSH and LH secretion, hence ovulation.

57. Isoxsuprine is used to treat

(a) Asthma

(b)Severe hypotension

(c) Nasal congestion

(d) Premature labour

Ans: D

58. The phenomena of invasion and destruction of tissue is known as

(a) Natural immunity

(b) Acquired immunity

(c)  Pathogenicity

(d)  Parasitism

59. Organisms, that can grow on organic matter from dead plants or animals are called as

(a) Saprophytes


(c) Psychotrophs

(d) Mesophils

60. Glycerol may be used as a preservative in a percentage of

(a) 15

(b) 50

(c) 1


61. The micro-organism that can enter the body only through an injury is

(a) Salmonella typhi

(b) Clostridium tetani

(c) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus pyogenes

Ans: B

62. Tears contain an antibacterial enzyme known as

(a) Zymase

(b)  Diastase

(c) Lysozyme

(d)  Lipase

ANS: C (Lysozyme, an enzyme found in the secretions (tears) of the lacrimal glands of animals and in nasal mucus, gastric secretions, and egg white)

63. Protein deficiency disease is known as

(a) Cushing’s disease

(b) Fabry’s disease

(c) Parkinson’s disease

(d)  Kwashiorkor and marasmus

Ans: D

64. Glycogen is present in all body tissue except

(a) Liver

(b)  Brain

(c) Kidney

(d) Stomach

Ans; B

65. The conversion of carotenoids to vitamin A takes place in

(a) Intestine

(b) Liver


(d) Skin

Ans: A

66. The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones and vitamin D is

(a) Diosgenin

(b)  Cholesterol



Ans: B

67. International enzyme commission classifies enzymes into

(a) Three classes

(b) Six classes

(c) Four classes

(d) Ten classes

Ans: B

68.Platelets contain an enzyme which has an important/role in clotting of blood. This enzyme is known as

(a) Cholinesterase

(b)  Transaminase

(c) Decarboxylase

(d) Thrombokinase

Ans: D

69. Cobalt is a’ constituent of

(a) Folic acid

 (b) Vitamin B12

(c)  Niacin

(d) Biotin

Ans: B

70. In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from

(a) DNA to DNA

(b) DNA to Protein

(c) DNA to RNA

(d) RNA to DNA

Ans: C (Transcription, the synthesis of RNA from DNA. This flow of information occurs through the sequential processes of transcription (DNA to RNA) and translation (RNA to protein).

71. Milk is deficient in which mineral?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Sodium

(c) Iron

(dj)  Potassium

Ans: C

72. Unopened insulin is stored at

(a) -1 to -5 °C

(b) 2 to 8 °C

(c) 15 to 20 °C

(d) 20 to 30 °C

Ans: B

73. Glargine is

(a) Short acting insulin

(b) Intermediate acting insulin

(c) Peakless insulin

(d) Oral insulin

Ans: C (See Pharmacokinetics diagram below. Glargine is longer-acting insulin & there is no peak (Steady-state plasma concentration)

74. Metformin is

(a) Sulfonyl urea

(b) DPPS inhibitor

(c)  Biguanide

(d) Alpha glucosidase inhibitor

Ans: C

75. Enalapril is

(a) Angiotensin receptor blocker

(b) Ca channel blocker

(c) Beta blocker

(d) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

Ans: D

76. In primary vaccination DPT is given as

(a) Three doses at one month intervals

(b) Three doses at three month intervals

(c) Five doses at one month intervals

(d) Single dose

Ans: A ( Previous DPT is used for primary vaccination. Now Pentavalent is used for immunization. Pentavalent vaccine is a combined vaccine to protect children from five diseases Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertusis, Haemophilis influenza type b infection and Hepatitis B. Read more…

77. The following are NSAIDs except

(a) Ibuprofen

(b) Diclofenac sodium

(c) Ketotifen

(d)  Piroxicam


78. Dextromethorphan is used in cough syrups as

(a) Expectorant

(b)  Mucolytic

(c) Bronchodilator

(d) Suppressant


79. The following are Proton pump inhibitors except

(a) Omeprazole

(b) Rabiprazole

(c)  Pantoprazole

(d) Albendazole

Ans: D

80. The following are true of National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) except

(a) lt is a statutory body

(b) It can fund studies regarding pricing of drugs

(c) It monitors drug shortages and takes appropriate action to rectify it

(d) It collects and maintains data regarding the import and export of drugs

Ans: A (National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) was constituted vide Government of India Resolution dated 29th August, 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.)

The function of National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority/NPPA

  1. To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
  2. To deal with all legal matters arising out of the decisions of the Authority.
  3. To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
  4. To collect/ maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, the profitability of companies etc., for bulk drugs and formulations.
  5. To undertake and/ or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/ pharmaceuticals.
  6. To recruit/ appoint the officers and other staff members of the Authority, as per rules and procedures laid down by the Government.
  7. To render advice to the Central Government on changes/ revisions in the drug policy.
  8. To render assistance to the Central Government in parliamentary matters relating to drug pricing.

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