Vikram Sarabhai Space center (ISRO) was conducted a written test for the selection of the post of Pharmacist on 10 Dec 2017. ThePharmapedia team publish a Pharmacist Question paper with an answer key.
Syllabus: Diploma in Pharmacy level. Download syllabus here
Question Patten: Most of The questions were asked form GPAT 1992 paper
Selection Process (General)
The Written Test will be conducted, Based on the written test scores, required no. of candidates alone shall be called for skill test. Written
The test will be conducted in such a way that theoretical and practical knowledge of the candidate is tested covering both breadth and depth of the prescribed curriculum. Marks obtained in the skill test will not be considered for selection. The skill test will be evaluated on a 100-point scale with a minimum 60% for qualification. From amongst candidates who qualify in the skill test with minimum 60% marks, empanelment will be done in the order of marks obtained in the written test. In case of a tie in the written scores, the academic scores of the notified qualification will be the tie-breaker.
ISRO Pharmacist Paper 2017
1. The Sweetening agent commonly used in the chewable tablet formula is
a. sucrose
b. cyclamate sodium
c. Saccharin sodium
d. mannitol
Ans: D
2. Sub-coatings given to the tablets
a. To increase bulk
b. To avoid deterioration due to microbial attack
c. To prevent the solubility in acidic media
d. To avoid stickiness
Ans: A
3. The pH of a pharmaceutical buffer system can be calculated by
a. pH partition theory
b. Noyes Whitney law
c. Henderson Hasselbalch equation
d. Michaelis Menten equation
Ans: C
![{\displaystyle {\ce {pH}}={\ce {p}}K_{{\ce {a}}}+\log _{10}\left({\frac {[{\ce {Base}}]}{[{\ce {Acid}}]}}\right)}](https://wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/092fb635dc84d06b9de5a2622a393f10057d5a06)
4 The pharmacy council of India is constituted by the (Also GPAT 1992)
a. Central government
b. State government
c. Parliament
d. Legislative assembly
Ans: A
5. Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface. This phenomenon is known as (Also GPAT 1992)
(a) Picking
(b)Mottling
(c)Leaching
(d)Cracking
Ans: A
6. Among the following preparations, which one will be the most irritating to the eye
(a) Purified water
(b) 0.7% NaCl solution
(c) 0.9% NaCl solution
(d) 1% NaCl solution
Ans: D
7.Bubble point test-is done to determine (GPAT 1992)
(a) The surface tension of the liquid in capillary tubes
(b) The viscosity of the liquid in ampoules
(c) The pH of 1% solution
(d) The volume of a solution stored in a specific container
Ans: A
8.As per GMP permitted limit of solid contents in water for injections is (GPAT 1994)
(a) 100 ppm
(b) 1.0 ppm
(c) 0.7 ppm
(d) 10.0 ppm
Ans: D
9.License for wholesale of drugs specified in schedule C and C; is issued in the form
(a) 20A
(b) 20B
(c) 21B
(D) 22A
Ans: C
10.In capsules, rotofil is used for filling
(a) Powders
(b) Pellets
(c) Liquids
(d) Corrosive liquids
Ans: B
11. Which of the following commonly available large volume dextrose solution for intravenous use is isotonic
(a) 2.5% W/V
(b) 5.0% W/V
(c) 10% W/V
(d) 20% W/V
Ans: B
12.Which is the ideal combination for testing the solubility of an enteric-coated capsule in alkaline medium? (GPAT 1990)
(a) Sodium bicarbonate + Potassium» hydroxide + Pepsin
(B) Sodium bicarbonates+, Sodium tauroglycocholate + Papain
(c) Sodiumbicarbonate + Pancreatin + Sodium tauroglycocholate
(d) Sodium bicarbonate + Bilirubin
Ans: C
13. Which one of the following is a pseudoalkaloid?
(a) Caffeine
(b) Ephedrine
(c) Morphine
(d) Codeine
Ans: A
14.Which vitamin contains a steroidal structure?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) None of the above
Ans: C
15. Morphine is present in
(a)Atropa belladonna
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Ricinus communis
(d) Solanum nigrum
Ans: B
16. Emetine, an alkaloid of Ipecacuanha acts as
(a) Antimalarial
(b) Anti-diarrhoeal
(c) Antiseptic
(d) None
Ans: B
17. Patient with Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is treated with Dapsone. He will suffer from
(a) Haemolytic anaemia
(b) Pernicious anaemia
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
18. Which one of the following drugs is not a long-acting benzodiazepine?
(a) Diazepam
(b) Clonazepam
(c) Flurazepam
(d) Midazolam
Ans: D
19. Which antibiotic is used for the treatment of both tuberculosis as well as leprosy?
(a) Isoniazid (INH)
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Clofazimine
(d) Ethionamide
Ans: B
20. All the following are stimulant purgatives except
(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Castor oil
(c) Senna
(d) Liquid. paraffin
And: D (Liq. paraffin- stool softner)
21. Mast cell stabilizer is
(a) Salbutamol
(b) Theophylline
(c) Sodium cromoglycate
(d) Atropine
Ans: C
22. Anticholinergic used as bronchodilator is
(a) Pilocarpine
(b) ipratropium
(c) Prazosin
(d) Salbutamol
Ans: B
23. Mucolytics are
(a) Bromohexine
(b) Carbocysteine
(c) Acetylcysteine
(d) All of the above
Ans:D
24. All except …….. are antibiotics obtained from fungi
(a) Penicillin
(b) Griseofulvin
(c) Cephalosporin
(d) Bacitracin
Ans: D
25. Some bacteria develop drug resistance very rapidly except
(a) Staphylococci
(b) Coliforms
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(D) Tubercle bacilli
26. Clavulanic acid or Sulbactum is used in combination with Amoxycillin against H.influenzae
because of
(a) Clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamase produced by, H.influenzae
(b) Clavulanic acid is an acid-resistant antibiotic
(C) Clavulanic acid is very susceptible to H.influenzae
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
27. Second-line antitubercular-drug is
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Capreomycin
(c) Ethambutol
(d) Rifampin
Ans: B
28. All first-line TB, drugs are bactericidal except
(a) INH
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(d) Pyrazinamide
Ans: C
29. All the following except contain imidazole ring
(a) Clotrimazole
(b) Econazole
(c) Miconazole
(d) Ketoconazole
Ans: None: All contain an Imidazole ring
30. In congestive cardiac failure, digitalis glycosides are used because it increases
(a) Heart rate
(b) Force of myocardial contraction
(c) Venous pressure
(d) Cardiac filling pressure
Ans: B
31. In order to produce characteristic pharmacological action, a drug must always
(a) Reach high blood levels
(b) Absorb from G.l.tract readily
(c) Achieve adequate concentration at the site of action
(d) Excreted unchanged in urine
Ans: C
32. Heparin prevents blood coagulation by
(a) Inhibiting thrombin catalyzed conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(b) Precipitate blood Calcium, thereby prevent coagulation reaction
(c) Inhibiting enzyme reactions
(d) Converting’ ionized calcium by chelation
Ans: A
33. Which is an antimetabolite?
(a) Fluorouracil
(b) Nitrogen mustard
(c) Cyclophosphamide
(d) Chlorambucil
Ans: A
34. Selective beta-2 bronchodilator used for the treatment of status asthmaticus is
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Isoetharine
(c) Terbutaline
(D) Dirabuterol
Ans: C
35. Belladonna alkaloid (atropine) is used prior to administration of a general anesthetic agent due to
(a) inhibition of G.l.T. motility
(b) Prevention of miosis
(c) Inhibition of salivation and secretion of respiratory tract
(d) Causing skeletal muscle relaxation
Ans: C
36. Drug of choice in amoebic dysentery is
(a) Penicillin G
(b) Niridazole
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Tetracycline
Ans: C
37. Clinically used Uricosuric agent is
(a) Diazepam
(b) Sulfinpyrazone
(c) Phenylbutazone
(d) Phenytoin
Ans: B (Uricosuric agent – Probenecid, Sulpinpyrazone)
38. The metal used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis is
(a) Ag
(b) Au
(c) Cu
(d) Sb
Ans: A
39. The drug very effective in the treatment of acute gout is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Acetaminophen
(c) phenylbutazone
(d) Indomethacin
Ans: D
40. The Antitubercular drug inhibiting RNA synthesis
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Rifampicin
Ans: D
41. The Antitubercular drug inhibiting Protein synthesis with potential for ototoxic effect is
(a) Ethambutol
(b) Dapsone
(c) Streptomycin
(d) INH
Ans: C
42. Methotrexate is an antagonist of
(a Cobalamine
(b) Folic acid
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Tocopherol
Ans: B
43. All are the side effects of Chloroquine except
(a) Blurring of vision
(b) Haemolytic anaemia
(c) Psychotic episodes
(d) Skin rash
Ans:
44. Antidote of organophosphorus poisoning is
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) atenolol
(c)Atropine
(d) Tubocurarine
Ans: C
45. Which of the following agents is a cholinesterase reactivator?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Pilocarpine
(c) Scopolamine
(d) Pralidoxime
Ans: D
46. Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is –
(a) Diosgenin
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Dopamine
(d) Ouabain
Ans: C
47. The choice of drug to treat Cerebral Malaria is
(a) Mepacrine
(b) Amodiaquine
(c) Quinine
(a) Primaquine
Ans: C
48. All of the following statements concerning Sulfonamides are correct except
(a) Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase
(o) Crystaluria may occur
(c) They are antimetabolites of PABA
(d) They are bacteriostatic
49. Optic neuritis is a chief adverse effect of
(a) Sulpha drugs
(b) Pyrazinamide
(c) Rifampicin
(d) Ethambutol
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is a Macrolide antibiotic?
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Spiramycin
(c) lincomycin
(d) Vancomycin
Ans: A
51. steroidal antibiotic is
(a)Fucidin
(b) Bacitracin
(c) Aminophylline
(d) Clindamycin
Ans: A
Explanation
Bacitracin and the polymyxins are polypeptide antibiotics & Bacitracin a affects cell wall synthesis. The lincosamide family of antibiotics includes lincomycin and clindamycin, both of which inhibit protein synthesis. Aminophylline (soluble ethylenediamine salt salt of theophylline) is a bronchodilator.
52. The preferred treatment of status epilepticus is intra venous administration of
(a) Ethosuximide
(b) Sodium valproate
(c) Diazepam
(d) Chloramphenicol
Ans: C
Explanation
The pharmacological treatment of choice at present consists of intravenous infusion of either diazepam or lorazepam.
53. Bromocriptine is used to treat amenorrhea because
(a) stimulates the ovary
(b) It stimulates the GnRH release
(c) It suppresses the prolactin release
(d) It stimulates FSH release
Ans: C
Explanation:
Ans: C
Exp: In women, prolactin acts with other hormones on the mammary gland during pregnancy to develop lactation and after birth to maintain it. But Hyperprolactinemia causes impotence in men and amenorrhea and infertility in women.
Dopaminergic agonists inhibit prolactin release and antagonists, such as the antipsychotic drugs, increase release of Prolactin.
54. The primary mechanism of action of Local Anaesthetic is the blockade of
(a) Potassium channel
(b) Calcium channel
(c) Sodium channel
(d) All of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:
The application of a local anesthetic to a nerve that is actively conducting impulses will inhibit the inward migration of Na. The local anesthetics interfere with the generation of the action potential, namely, transient voltage-dependent rise in the permeability of the membrane to Na.
55. Long term use of Glucocorticoids induce
(a) Hypotension
(b) Hepatotoxicity
(c) Osteoporosis
(D) Bradycardia
Ans:C
Explanation
The most damaging and therapeutically limiting adverse effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy is impairment of bone formation. By enhancing bone resorption and decreasing bone formation, glucocorticoids decrease bone mass and increase the risk of fractures.
Adrenal Gland: Medulla part – Adrenaline (to meet short term stress) and cortex part- divided into three
concentric zones: the zona glomerulosa (secretes Aldosterone-Mineralocorticoid), zona fasciculate (secretes Glucocorticoids – Hydrocortisone withstand long term stress), and zona reticularis (Sex steroids).
56.Clomiphene is used to treat infertility because it stimulates
(a) LH secretion
(b) Follicular development
(c) Ovulation
(d) Uterus activity
Ans: C
Explanation
SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATORS (SERMs) are nonhormonal pharmacological agents that bind to ERs. A characteristic feature of the SERMs is that a given agent will act as an estrogen agonist in one or more tissues and as an estrogen antagonist in one or more other estrogen target organs. Tamoxifen citrate, clomiphene citrate and raloxifene are examples of nonsteroidal SERMs. Induction of ovulation by clomiphene citrate is the result of stimulation of FSH and LH release. Estrogens generally exert a negative-feedback inhibition on FSH and LH secretion by means of a suppression of GnRH from the hypothalamus. Antagonism of this feedback system results in a surge of FSH and LH secretion, hence ovulation.
57. Isoxsuprine is used to treat
(a) Asthma
(b)Severe hypotension
(c) Nasal congestion
(d) Premature labour
Ans: D
58. The phenomena of invasion and destruction of tissue is known as
(a) Natural immunity
(b) Acquired immunity
(c) Pathogenicity
(d) Parasitism
59. Organisms, that can grow on organic matter from dead plants or animals are called as
(a) Saprophytes
(b)Parasites
(c) Psychotrophs
(d) Mesophils
60. Glycerol may be used as a preservative in a percentage of
(a) 15
(b) 50
(c) 1
(d)
61. The micro-organism that can enter the body only through an injury is
(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Clostridium tetani
(c) Clostridium botulinum
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes
Ans: B
62. Tears contain an antibacterial enzyme known as
(a) Zymase
(b) Diastase
(c) Lysozyme
(d) Lipase
ANS: C (Lysozyme, an enzyme found in the secretions (tears) of the lacrimal glands of animals and in nasal mucus, gastric secretions, and egg white)
63. Protein deficiency disease is known as
(a) Cushing’s disease
(b) Fabry’s disease
(c) Parkinson’s disease
(d) Kwashiorkor and marasmus
Ans: D
64. Glycogen is present in all body tissue except
(a) Liver
(b) Brain
(c) Kidney
(d) Stomach
Ans; B
65. The conversion of carotenoids to vitamin A takes place in
(a) Intestine
(b) Liver
(c)Kidney
(d) Skin
Ans: A
66. The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones and vitamin D is
(a) Diosgenin
(b) Cholesterol
(c)Campesterol
(d)Ergosterol
Ans: B
67. International enzyme commission classifies enzymes into
(a) Three classes
(b) Six classes
(c) Four classes
(d) Ten classes
Ans: B
68.Platelets contain an enzyme which has an important/role in clotting of blood. This enzyme is known as
(a) Cholinesterase
(b) Transaminase
(c) Decarboxylase
(d) Thrombokinase
Ans: D
69. Cobalt is a’ constituent of
(a) Folic acid
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Niacin
(d) Biotin
Ans: B
70. In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
(a) DNA to DNA
(b) DNA to Protein
(c) DNA to RNA
(d) RNA to DNA
Ans: C (Transcription, the synthesis of RNA from DNA. This flow of information occurs through the sequential processes of transcription (DNA to RNA) and translation (RNA to protein).
71. Milk is deficient in which mineral?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Sodium
(c) Iron
(dj) Potassium
Ans: C
72. Unopened insulin is stored at
(a) -1 to -5 °C
(b) 2 to 8 °C
(c) 15 to 20 °C
(d) 20 to 30 °C
Ans: B
73. Glargine is
(a) Short acting insulin
(b) Intermediate acting insulin
(c) Peakless insulin
(d) Oral insulin
Ans: C (See Pharmacokinetics diagram below. Glargine is longer-acting insulin & there is no peak (Steady-state plasma concentration)
74. Metformin is
(a) Sulfonyl urea
(b) DPPS inhibitor
(c) Biguanide
(d) Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
Ans: C
75. Enalapril is
(a) Angiotensin receptor blocker
(b) Ca channel blocker
(c) Beta blocker
(d) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
Ans: D
76. In primary vaccination DPT is given as
(a) Three doses at one month intervals
(b) Three doses at three month intervals
(c) Five doses at one month intervals
(d) Single dose
Ans: A ( Previous DPT is used for primary vaccination. Now Pentavalent is used for immunization. Pentavalent vaccine is a combined vaccine to protect children from five diseases Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertusis, Haemophilis influenza type b infection and Hepatitis B. Read more…
77. The following are NSAIDs except
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Diclofenac sodium
(c) Ketotifen
(d) Piroxicam
Ans:C
78. Dextromethorphan is used in cough syrups as
(a) Expectorant
(b) Mucolytic
(c) Bronchodilator
(d) Suppressant
Ans:D
79. The following are Proton pump inhibitors except
(a) Omeprazole
(b) Rabiprazole
(c) Pantoprazole
(d) Albendazole
Ans: D
80. The following are true of National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) except
(a) lt is a statutory body
(b) It can fund studies regarding pricing of drugs
(c) It monitors drug shortages and takes appropriate action to rectify it
(d) It collects and maintains data regarding the import and export of drugs
Ans: A (National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) was constituted vide Government of India Resolution dated 29th August, 1997 as an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers as an independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.)
The function of National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority/NPPA
- To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
- To deal with all legal matters arising out of the decisions of the Authority.
- To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps.
- To collect/ maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, the profitability of companies etc., for bulk drugs and formulations.
- To undertake and/ or sponsor relevant studies in respect of pricing of drugs/ pharmaceuticals.
- To recruit/ appoint the officers and other staff members of the Authority, as per rules and procedures laid down by the Government.
- To render advice to the Central Government on changes/ revisions in the drug policy.
- To render assistance to the Central Government in parliamentary matters relating to drug pricing.
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