Drug Inspector/DI UPSC Previous Year Question Paper-2011

UPSC, DI, Drug Inspector, Paper, Question

Dear Pharmacy professional, Please find below Question paper of Drug Inspector which was held in March 2011 by UPSC.

Q.1 Pharmacovigilance is used to monitor

a) Unauthorized drug manufacturing        

b) Drug toxicity

c) Pharmacokinetics        

d) Cost of drugs and pharmaceuticals

Q.2 Clonidine is

a)  α1 – selective agonist

b) α2- selective agonist

c) α1- selective antagonist

d) α2 -selective antagonist

Q.3 Mala – N contains

a) Ethinyl Estradiol

b) Norethindrone

c) D-norgestrel  

d) Norepinephrine

Q.4 Prolonged use of steroids may cause

a)  hypoglycemia

b) hypotension

c) decrease in bone matrix protein

d) early healing of wound

Q.5 Anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids is due to blocking of

a) Prostaglandin synthase

b) Thromboxane synthase

c) 15-lipoxygenase

d) Breakdown of phospholide

Q.6 Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification in India is

a) Mandatory for all pharmaceutical industries

 b) compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of biologicals

 c) compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of non biologicals

d) optional for pharmaceutical industries

Q.7 Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification is issued in India

a) Controller, Weights and Measures, Government of India

b) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), Government of India

c) Department of Science and Technology, Government of India

d) Drug Controller General of India (DCGI), Government of India

Q.8 Which of the following is second generation H1 –antihistamine?

a) Cetirizine        

b) Cinnarizine     

c) Pheneramine 

d) Promethazine

Q.9 Prostaglandins have effects on variety of tissues in human body. The different Prostaglandins may have different effects. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) PGE2 is bronchodilator whereas PGF2α is a bronchoconstrictor

b) PGE2 has marked oxytocic action while PGF2α has tocolytic action

c) PGE1 and PGE2 inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 aggregation

d) Human arteriolar smooth muscle is relaxed by PGE2 and PGi2 whereas TXA2 and PGF2α cause vasoconstriction

Q.10 Which one of the statement is true regarding NSAID’s ?

a) They cause release of histamine

b) They cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

c) They indirectly increase leukotriene production

d) They cause airway irritation

Q.11 Which of the following statement is not correct?

a) Rate of killing of bacteria by antibiotics follow the first order kinetics

b)The bactericidal effects of penicillin depends upon its attained Cmax       

c) The antibiotics having time dependent bactericidal effects are given in large dose rather than multiple daily doses

d) Aminoglycosides produce bactericidal effect in a concentration dependent manner

Q.12 Which of the following statement is not correct combination of drug &its important adverse effect?

a) Rifampicin : hepatotoxicity      

b) Isoniazid : peripheral neuropathy

c) Ethambutol : increased uric acid

d) Streptomycin : ototoxicity

Q.13 Chemotherapeutic agent, who does not inhibit the microtubules formation, is

a) Paclitaxel       

b) Colchicine      

c) Vincristine      

d) Vinblastine

Q.14 Following antibiotics have been correctly paired to their mechanism of action, except :

a) Vancomycin – inhibits synthesis of phospholipids and peptidoglycan polymerization

b) Tetracycline – binds to bacterial 30s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis

c) Erythromycin – binds to bacterial 70s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis

d) Ciprofloxacin – interferes with the action of bacterial topoisomerase II

Q.15 The pharmacokinetic ‘half life’ of which one of the following resembles to its pharmacodynamics ‘half life’

a)Morphine        

b) Terfenadine   

c) Isoprenaline  

d) Suxamethonium

Q.16 The following properties of a drug encourage its accumulation in breast milk, except :

a) high lipid solubility      

b) unionized state            

c) low molecular weight

d) weak acid

Q.17 As per Schedule ‘Y’ of The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the animal toxicity study requirement for marketing of a drug depends upon tentative route and duration of administration in humans. In this context which one of the statement is incorrect?

a) Single dose human use –animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species

b) Oral use for 2 weeks in human -animal toxicity for 4 weeks in 2 species

c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans – animal toxicity in 2 species for 24 weeks

d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration – irrigation test in one species for 3 weeks

Q.18 In one of the clinical trials of vaccine, there were six deaths reported by media. You have been deputed by authority to investigate the causality of incidence. Inspection of the following documents will be helpful except :

a) Source data   

b) Standard operating procedures

c) Data safety monitoring records             

d) informed consent forms

Q.19 Which one among the following is an antimalarial drug having a metabolite with triazine moiety?

a) Quinine

b) Proguanil

c) Pyramethamine

d) Primaquine

Q.20 Which one among the following is an antitubercular drug with hydrazine moiety?

a) Ethionamide       

 b) Isoniazid

c) Pyrazinamide

d) Thioacetazone

Q.21 Codeine differs from Morphine structurally in

a) Methylation of phenolic hydroxyl group

b) Methylation of alcoholic group

c) Methylation of Nitrogen group              

d) oxidation of phenolic hydroxyl group

Q.22 Tropane system is fusion of

a) Pyrrolidine & Piperidine    

b) Pyrrolidine & Pyrimidine

c) Pyrrole&Pyrazine         

d) Thiophene& Piperidine

Q.23 The local anesthetic exert their action by blocking one of the following types of ion- channels:

a) Ligand gated sodium channel  

b) Voltage gated sodium channel

c) Ligand gated calium channel   

d) Voltage gated calcium channel

Q.24 Which of the following statements with regard to the SAARC Summit held in Bhutan in April, 2010 is not correct?

a) The Summit was held in Bhutan for the first time

b) It was the Silver Jublee Summit of SAARC

c) The Summit recommended to declare 2010 – 2020 as the ‘Decade of Intra- regional Connectivity in SAARC’

 d) The Summit central theme was ‘Cross Border Terrorism

Q.25 Which of the following statements with regard to the Right to Education Act, 2010 is not correct?

a) All children in 6 – 14 years age group must get free and compulsory education

b) No children shall be held back, expelled or required to pass a board examination till Class VIII      

c) There must be 25% reservation for poor children even in private schools.

d) Gram Panchayats and Municipal Councils are responsible to took into violations of Right and Education laws.

Q.26 Which trophic level in the grazing food chain do lions belong to ?

a) Trophic level 1     

b) Trophic level 2    

c) Trophic level 3

d) Trophic level 4

Q.27 The number of trophic levels in grazing food chain is restricted because

a) the higher levels like to restrict their number to improve availability

b) of loss of availability of food from consumption in the lower level

c) of an internal number of organisms in the next higher level

d) of sequential transfer loss of energy

Q.28 The trophic level of a given species depends on its

a) functionality  

b) strength

c) number           

d) size

Q.29 The President of India has no power to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where sentence

a) is given by court martial

b) of death has been awarded

c) is for offence relating to a matter to which the executive power to the Union

d) is for an offence relating to a matter to which the executive power to the State

Q.30 Who among the following won the Australian Open Tennis Championship (Men’s Singles) 2011?

a) Andy Murray 

b) Novak Djokovic

c) Rafael Nadal 

d) Roger Federer

The next there items are based on the following passage :

Before performing an operation in the hospital, a doctor administers a drug or gas to make the patient unconscious of pain. This state of unconsciousness is known as ‘anaesthesia’, from the Greek word meaning ‘loss of feeling’. The substance causing loss of feeling is called anaesthetic. The discovery of anaesthetics in the 19th century was one of the greatest achievements in the field of medicine. Before anaesthetics, operations were done in very rare cases. Patients needing surgery were given alcohol or various drugs extracted from plant juices to dull pain. Even then, operations were always very painful, and were undertaken only in extreme emergencies. Today, with effective anaesthetics it is possible to produce many hours of pain-free unconsciousness, and this enables surgeons to perform complex, life saving operations.

Q.31 Before performing an operation, how does a doctor lessen the pain of the patient?

a) gives alcohol

b) give a drug or gas to make the patient unconscious

c) gives juice extracts of plants

d) Uses extreme methods to dull the pain

Q.32 Before 19th century, operations were done in very rare cases because

a) patient could not be given anything except alcohol to lessen the pain

b) there was absence of one of the greatest achievements in the field of science and technology

c) anaesthetics were discovered in the 19th century

d) drug extracted from plant juices could not dull pain sufficiently

Q.33 Today surgeons can perform complex, life-saving operations due to

a) there being emergency facilities

b) the fact that patient can be kept pain free for many hours with anaesthetics

c) powerful plant extracts are available today

d) the fact that operations are done in  rare cases

Q.34 The Chairman of the Investigational New drug(IND) Committee in India is

a) Drugs Controller General of India, Government of India

b) Secretary, Development of Health Research, Government of India

c) Directorate General of Health Sciences, Government of India

d) Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, Government of India

Q.35 In India, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendation of

a) Indian Council of Medical Research

b) Pharmacy council of India

c) Drug Technical Advisory Board

d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory Board

Q.36 Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect which substance?

a) Leutinizing Hormone  

b) Progestrone  

c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

d) Estrogen

Q.37 Which one among the following is neither an input nor output device?

a) CD-ROM

b) Floppy Disk

c) Hard Disk

d) Pen drive

Q.38 Which among the following is/are the units(s) of RAM?

1. Gigabyte and Megabyte; 2. RPM; 3. GBPS and MPBS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3           

c) 1 only

d) 3 only

Q.39 If you mix 4 part of 40% with 1 part of 90% alcohol you will get

a) 45.7% Alcohol

b) 40% Alcohol  

c) 50% Alcohol  

d) 57% Alcohol

Q.40 The loading dose (DL) of drug is usually based on the

a) total body clearance of the drug b) fraction of drug unchanged in the urine

c) apparent volume of distribution (VD) and desired drug concentration in plasma

d) area under the plasma drug concentration verses time curve (AUC)

Q.41 The activity of which one of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl-N- alkylpiperidine moiety?

a) Phenobarbital              

b) Chlorpromazine           

c) Imipramine    

d) Meperidine

Q.42 Flurazepam has pKa of 8.2. what percentage of flurazepam will ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?

a) 0.1% 

b) 1%    

c) 99%  

d) 99.9%

Q.43 Recrudescence of malaria refers to the

a) re-infection of patient by mosquito bite

b) re-infection by exoerythrocytic hypnozoites

c) incomplete clearance of sporozoites from blood

d) incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood

Q.44 Which one of the following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?

a) Ampicillin

b) Dopamine      

c) Cisplatin         

d) Nitroglycerine

Q.45 Protonation plays a major role in the biological activity of proton pump inhibitors such as Omperazole and Esomeperazole. The protonation takes place on the

a) Aromatic Methyl chain

b) Benzimidazole ring

c) Methoxy side chain

d) The ring that has dimethyl groups

Q.46 Assume that for a digoxin, the therapeutic range is cited as Cavg5.5 = 0.8 – 2 ng/ml. if the patient is assumed to have an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 hours, how long would you wait to take a serum digoxin concentration measurement and when during the dosing interval would you schedule it?

a) 28 days then 3 – 4 hours after the dose is administered

b) 14 days then 6 – 8 hours after the dose is administered

c) 7 days then 10 – 14 hours after the dose is administered

d) 3 days then 1 – 2 hours after the dose is administered

Q.47 Which drug is used to prevent embolism in the lungs and also during myocardial infarction?

a) Human Growth hormone

b) Alteplase

c) Epogen (EPO)

d) Granulocyte – macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM – CSF)

Q.48 Which enzyme is used by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to form deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the host cell?

a) Restriction endonuclease

b) DNA-directed polymerase

c) Reverse transcriptase only

d) both b & c

Q.49 For two drug products, generic and brand to be considered bioequivalent, the 90% confidence intervals about the ratio of the Cmax and AUC values for generic/brand product must be within

a) 80% – 120% of the brand product

b) 80% – 100% of the brand product

c) 80% – 85% of the brand product

d) 80% – 90% of the brand product

Q.50 The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

a) effective renal blood flow

 b) active renal secretion

c) glomerular filtration rate

d) intrinsic enzyme activity

Q.51 Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a) Increase in the particle size of the drug

b) Use of the ionized, or salt, form of the drug

c) Decrease surface area of the drug

d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug

Q.52 The amount of nitroglycerine that a transdermal patch delivers within a 24 hour period will

not depend on

a) Occlusive backing on the patch

b) diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch

c) surface area of the patch

d) dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch

Q.53 A very fine powdered chemical/drug is defined as one that

a) completely passes through a sieve # 240           

b) completely passes through a sieve # 120

c) completely passes through a sieve # 60              

d) completely passes through a sieve # 60 and not more than 40% through a sieve # 120

Q.54 Which equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature?

a) The Stokes’ equation 

b) The Arrhenius equation

c) The Michaelis – Menten equation

d) The Hixon – Crowell equation

Q.55 In 25.0 ml of a solution for injection, there are 4.0 mg of the drug. If the dose to be administered to a patient is 200 µg, what quantity of this solution should be used?

a) 1.25 ml

b) 0.125 ml

c) 12 ml

d) 1.2 ml

Q.56 The rate of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacologic effect is

a) per oral administration

b) intradermal injection

c) intravenous injection

d) subcutaneous injection

Q.57 Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of

a) soft gelatin capsule

b) compressed tablets

c) hard gelatin capsule

d) modified release drug products

Q.58 The extent of ionization of weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the

a) Particle size and surface area of the drug

b) Noyes – Whitney equation for the drug

c) polymeric form of the drug      

d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug

Q.59 The characteristics of an active transport include all of the following except:

a) active transport moves drug molecules against concentration gradient

b) active transport follows Fick’s law of diffusion

c) active transport requires energy

d) active transport of drug molecules may be saturated at high drug concentration

Q.60 In order to determine the absolute bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended- release tablet The bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the drug from

a) an immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of the active ingredient

b) a reference (brand) extended-release tablet that is a pharmaceutical equivalent

c) a parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion

d) an oral solution of the drug in the same dose

Q.61 Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as

a) a water soluble base  

b) an oleaginous base     

c) an absorption base

d) an emulsion base

Q.62 Rofecoxib

a) has similar effect to Diclofenac

b) provides protection against ischaemic cardiovascular events

c) is indicated for long term use in osteoarthritis

d) can be given to patients with active peptic ulceration

Q.63 Schedule ‘R’ of Drugs and Cosmetic Act would apply to

a) requirement of factory premises and hygienic conditions for Ayurvadic (including Siddha) drugs

b) requirement of factory premises for Unani drugs           

c) standards for mechanical contraceptives           

d) standards for medical devices

Q.64 An alcoholic solution contains 57.77% u/v alcohol. The strength will be labelled as

a) over proof     

b) under proof   

c) proof spirit     

d) proof gallons

Q.65 Probenecid increases serum levels and prolongs activity of penicillin derivatives by

a) plasma protein binding             

b) blocking their glomerular filteration

c) blocking their tubular secretion             

d) blocking their reabsorption

Q.66 In the preparation of calamine lotion, sodium citrate is used as

a) suspending agent        

b) solubilizer      

c) buffering agent            

d) bacteriostatics

Q.67 Water which is free from volatile and non-volatile impurities, micro organisms & pyrogens is called

a) Purified water IP

b) water for injection IP

c) sterile water for injection IP    

d) Portable water

Q.68 A new drug has completed phase – I clinical trial in USA, the pharmaceutical company wants to do the multicentric, multinational trial including India. The firm will apply in India to conduct

a) phase I trial   

b) phase II trial  

c) pre-clinical trial            

d) pharmacolimetric data trial

Q.69 Match the following :

1. Schedule V      I. Particulars to be shown in the various records of manufacture of drugs

2. Schedule T      II. List of drugs which can be marketed under generic name only

3. Schedule U     III. Life period of drugs

4. Schedule W    IV. Standards of patent and proprietary medicines

5. Schedule P      V. Requirement of factory premises and conditions for Ayurvedic & Unani Drugs

Which is the correct match?

a) 1 – I, 2 – III, 3 – IV, 4 – V, 5 – II

b) 1 – V, 2 – IV, 3 – I, 4 – II, 5 – III

c) 1 – IV, 2 – V, 3 – I, 4 – II, 5 – III

d) 1 – IV, 2 – V, 3 – II, 4 – I, 5 – III

Q.70 0.9% w/v sodium chloride has a freezing point depression of

a) -0.500 C

b) -0.520 C

c) -0.560 C

d) -0.580 C

Q.71 Subcoating is given to the tablets to

a) prevent dissolution in acidic medium   

b) round the edges and build up the tablet size

c) prevent moisture penetration into the tablet

d) avoid deteriotation due to microbial attack

Q.72 Which one among the following is observed in first order kinetic?

a) Clearance is constant

b) dose dependent elimination occurs

c) Rate of elimination decreases with increase in plasma concentration

d) Rate of elimination does not depend on plasma concentration of drug

Q.73 Which one among the following drugs is not metabolized by liver

a) Phenytoin

b) Erythromycin

c) Penicillin – G  

d) Cefotaxime

Q.74 Which one among the following drugs is not an oral third generation cephalosporin ?

a) Cefditoren     

b) Cefdinir

c) Cefclor

d) Ceftibuten

Q.75 Which one among the following statements regarding Placebo is correct?

a) Placebo does not produce any effect   

b) Placebo is dummy medication

c) All patient respond to Placebo

d) Placebo is the inert material added to drug for making tablets

Q.76 The carboxyl group aspirin after esterification with N-acetyl-P-aminophenol gives

a) 3-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate

b) 4-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate

c) O-(2-hydroxybenzoyl) salicylic acid

d) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate

Q.77 A rescription order calls for 500 ml 2.0% aminosyn, but the pharmacy has 8.0% solution in stock.

How much of aminosyn 8.0% is required to prepare 500 ml of above solution?

a) 120 ml

b) 147 ml

c) 125 ml

d) 250 ml

Q.78 Which of the following is/are the symptoms of venous thrombosis?

1. Oedema

2. Lower leg becoming bluish in colour

3. Dry skin

Select the correct answer using code given below :

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.79 Interferon beta

1. Can be administered orally .

2. May cause myalgia and fever.

3. Is used in multiple sclerosis.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.80 Which of the following is/are the side effects associated with testosterone?

1. Headache.

2. Hirsuitism.

3. Gynaecomastia.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.81 Rosiglitazone

1. should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease.

2. should not be used with gliclazide.

3. is a biguanide.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.82 Iron salt s

1. should always be taken on empty stomach.

2. should be given by mouth unless there are good reasons for using another route.

3. in the form of ferric salts are better absorbed than ferrous salts. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.83 Doxycycline

1. is bacteriostatic.

2. is broad spectrum antibacterial drug.

3. may be administered in renal impairment.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.84 Testosterone may be used

1. to treat breast and endometrial cancer in females.

2. to treat hypogonadism in males.

3. to suppress postpartum breast enlargement. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3      

b) 1 and 2 only   

c) 2 and 3 only   

d) 1 only

Q.85 Following adverse effects are rightly paired with a causative anti-malarial drug except :

a) Lichenoid skin eruption : Chloroquine  

b) Steven-Johnson syndrome :      Quinine

c) Hallucinations : Mefloquine     

d) Prolongation of QTc : Halofantrine

Q.86 A single dose four-way cross over, fasting, comparative bioavailability study was performed in 24 healthy adult male subjects. Plasma drug concentrations were obtained for each subject and following results were obtained?

ProductDose (mg)Cmax (µg/ml)Tmax (hr)AUC0à∞( µghr/ml)
IV injection100  1714
Oral20021.31.23143
emulsion    
Capsule20017.02.12822
Reference tablet20016.51.92715

The relative bioavailability of the drug from the capsule compared to reference tablet is

a) 82.3%             

b) 91.7%

c) 96.2%

d) 103.9%

Q.87 How many grams of aspirin should be used to prepare 1.250 kg of the given powder? Powder formula :

ASA :6 parts

Phenacetin: 3 parts

Caffeine: 1 parts

a) 125   

b) 750   

c) 186   

d) 366

Q.88 Which technique is typically used to mill Camphor?

a) Levigation      

b) Pulverization by intervention   

c) Geometric dilution      

d) Attriction

Q.89 Content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?

a) Bioequivalency

b) Potency

c) Purity

d) Toxicity

Q.90 The route of drug administration that provides complete (100%) bioavailability is

a) intramuscular injection

b) intravenous injection

c) intradermal injection

d) subcutaneous injection

Q.91 The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as

a) controlled-release product

b) hard gelatin capsule

c) solution

d) compressed tablet

Q.92 The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be minimized by which of the following?

1. Adding Sodium Benzoate.

2. Increasing the viscosity of the suspension.

3. reducing the particle size of the active ingredient.

4. Adding a suspending agent

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a) 1 and 2 only   

b) 2, 3 and 4       

c) 1, 3 and 4       

d) 2 and 4 only

Q.93 Which one among the following statements is not correct?

a) Vaccines stimulate active immunity

b) Vaccines are used for long term prophylaxis

c) Patient receives antibodies in active immunization

d) Patient produces antibodies in active immunization

Q.94 Which one of following is not correct?

a) Vaccines are antigen containing preparations

b) Toxoids are bacterial toxins modified to destroy or reduce their toxicity to a safe level

c) Antibodies containing preparations are known as antisera

d) Vaccines are used for passive immunization

Q.95 Class 100 clean room is defined as a room in which the particle count in the is

a) not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 µm and larger in size

b) not more than 120 per cubic foot of 0.5 µm and larger in size    

c) not less than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 µm and larger in size

d) not more than 99 per cubic foot of 0.3 µm and larger in size

Q.96 Which one of following is not used as enteric coating material?

a) Cellulose acetate phthalate

b) Pectin

c) Acrylate polymers

d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate

Q.97 Which one of following is cannot be used for buffering of injections?

a) Phosphate buffer

b) Citrate buffers

c) Borate buffers

d) Acetate buffer

Q.98 Which one of following chemical/pharmaceuticals classes of agents is incorrectly matched with its  acid/base nature

a) Adrenergic α2 -agonist :basic  

b) Prostaglandins : acidic

c) 4-Quinolines :basic

d) Meglitinides : acidic

Q.99 Which one of following acid has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?

a) Aspirin (pKa =3.5)

b) Indomethacin (pKa = 4.5)

c) Ibuprofen (pKa =5.2)   

d) Phenobarbital (pKa = 7.4)

Q.100 All of following statements about first order degradation are true, except:

a) its rate is dependent on the concentration

b) its half life is changing parameter

c) a plot of the log of concentration versus time yields a straight line

d) its t90% is independent if the concentration

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