DI/Drug Inspector (DI) HPPSC Himachal PradeshPrevious Year Question Paper 2020

Drug Inspector Previous Year Exam paper HPPSC Pharmapedia

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Previous Year Paper


Q1: The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is

  1. An increase in plasma protein binding.
  2. A large apparent volume of distribution (VD).
  3. A decrease in the rate  of formation of metabolites by  the liver.
  4. An increase in the number  of side effects produced by  the drug.

Correct Ans: B

Q2: The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

  1. Rate of renal drug excretion.
  2. Intrinsic enzyme activity.
  3. Active renal secretion.
  4. Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR).

Correct Ans: 4

Q3: All of the following classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension except

  1. Aryloxypropanolamines.
  2. thiazides.
  3. fibrates.
  4. dihydropyridines.

Correct Ans: 3

Q4: Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?

  1. Clonidine
  2. Isoproterenol
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Phenylephrine

Correct Ans: 3

Q5: Opioids are used as all of the following agents except

  1. Antitussives.
  2. Analgesics.
  3. Anti-inflammatories.
  4. Antidiarrheals.

Correct Ans: 3

Q6: Which agent is most likely being used to treat his schizophrenic psychosis?

  1. clozapine
  2. fluoxetine
  3. buspirone
  4. risperidone

Correct Ans: 1

Q7: The termination of heparin activity by  protamine sulfate is the result of

  1. A chelating action.
  2. The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin.
  3. The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding.
  4. An acid-base neutralization.

Correct Ans: 4

Q8:  Cardiac glycosides may be useful in treating all of the following conditions except

  1. Atrial flutter.
  2. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
  3. Congestive heart failure.
  4. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct Ans: D

Q9: Which of the following classes of compounds stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic  cells?

  1. Biguanides
  2. Glucosidase inhibitors
  3. Sulfonylureas
  4. None of the above

Correct Ans: 3

Q10:   The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?

  1. Severe ischemic colitis
  2. torsade des pointes
  3. Cardiovascular thrombotic events
  4. Acute liver failure

Correct Ans: 3

Q11:   The schedule related to GMP for pharmaceutical products in Drugs and Cosmetics Act is

  1. Schedule L1
  2. Schedule Y
  3. Schedule M
  4.  Schedule P

Correct Ans: 3

Q12:  p-nitro benzoic acid is used as the starting material for the synthesis of

  1. Procaine
  2. Barbitone
  3. Imipramine
  4. Amitryptiline

Correct Ans: 1

Q13:   The commonly accepted organic additives to local anesthetics to improve the duration of activity are:

  1. Skin penetration enhancers
  2. Vasoconstrictors
  3. Vasodialtors
  4. Antihistamines

Correct Ans: 2

Q14:   The following is a selective PDE3 inhibitor

  1. Cilostozol
  2. Zafirlukast
  3. Rolipram
  4. Sildenafil

Correct Ans: 1

Q15:  Guidelines for permission to import or manufacture of drugs for sale or to undertake clinical trials are laid down in the following schedule of Drugs and Cosmetics Act

  1. Schedule L1
  2. Schedule P
  3. Schedule Y
  4. Schedule H

Correct Ans: 3

Q16:  In a patient weighing 70 kg, acetaminophen has a Vd of 70 L and CL of 350 mL/min. The elimination half life of drug is approximately

  1. 35 min
  2. 70 min
  3. 140 min
  4. 280 min

Correct Ans: 3

Q17:  Urination in the human subject is decreased by

  1.  Acetylcholine
  2.  Benztropine
  3. Nicotine
  4. Phytostigmine

Correct Ans: 2

Q18:   Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause severe symptoms of depression when used in treating hypertensive patients?

  1. Reserpine
  2. Prazosin
  3. Nifedipine
  4. Captopril

Correct Ans: 1

Q19:   The prohibition of misbranded advertisement related to drugs falls under  the following act

  1. Opium Act 1878
  2. Drugs and  Magic Remedies Act 1954
  3. Dangerous Drugs Act 1930
  4. Essential Commodities Act, 1955

Correct Ans: 2

Q20:  Lorazepam can be used as pre anesthetic medication in patients undergoing liver transplantation because the drug is

  1. Excreted in unchanged form
  2. Actively secreted into GI tract
  3. conjugated/metabolized extrahepatically
  4. None of the above

Correct Ans: 3

Q21:   High level of resistance of M.tuberculosis to Isoniazid (INH) involves

Decreased intracellular accumulation of drug

Reduced expression of gene that encodes catalase

Inactivation of drug

Increased synthesis of mycolic acids

Correct Ans: B

Q22:  Phenobarbitone belongs to the class of

Schedule X

 Schedule R

Schedule O

 Schedule Y

Correct Ans: A

Q23:   Which of the following drugs used in Rheumatoid Arthritis has a mechanism of decreasing Tumor Necrosis

Factor?

Etanercept

Sulfasalazine

Rofecoxib

Pencillamine

Correct Ans: A

Q24:   The following schedule deals with the life period of drugs:

Schedule L1

Schedule R

Schedule P

Schedule Y

Correct Ans: C

Q25:   The most likely drug to be effective in diseases caused by  cestodes and trematodes is

Chloroquine

Mebendazole

Metronidazole

Praziquantel

Correct Ans: D

Q26:   The following acts as antiflatulent in the preparation of antacids

Selenium sulphide

Simethicone

sugar

Methyl paraben

Correct Ans: B

Q27:   The following schedule refers to diseases or ailments for which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure:

Schedule G

Schedule R

Schedule J

Schedule X

Correct Ans: C

Q28:  Precaution advisable when using lovastatin include

Serum transaminase measurements

Renal function tests

Acoustic measurements

Complete blood picture every month

Correct Ans: A

Q29:  Government opium factory is situated at

Delhi

Bombay

Kasaouli

Neemuch

Correct Ans: D

Q30:   The Ayurvedic and Unani poisons are listed in the following schedule

Schedule E1

Schedule F&F1

Schedule G

Schedule Y

Correct Ans: A

Q31:   The oral liquid preparation specified in schedule X can be marketed in packing not exceeding:

100 ml

300 ml

25 ml

5 ml

Correct Ans: B

Q32:  Carbimazole is

An antithyroid drug

An antiepileptic drug

A coagulant

An antihypertensive drug

Correct Ans: A

Q33:  Neostigmine bromide is indicated primarily in the treatment of

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Myasthenia gravis

Convulsions

Brain stroke

Correct Ans: B

Q34:  Schedule ‘S’ of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 refers to:

Requirement of factory premises

List of poisons

Life period of drugs

Standard for cosmetics

Correct Ans: D

Q35:   The absorption rate constant is calculated by:

Rate of excretion method

Wagner Nelson method

Michaelis Menten equation

Sigma Minus plot

Correct Ans: B

Q36:   The loading dose (DL  ) of a drug is usually based on the

Total body clearance (ClT) of the drug.

Percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins.

Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine.

Apparent volume of distribution (VD) and  desired drug concentration in plasma.

Correct Ans: D

Q37:  Finasteride is approved for use in male pattern baldness and it acts as

Activator of estrogen receptors

Inhibitor of 5-alpha reductase

An aromatase inhibitor

An androgen receptor antagonist

Correct Ans: B

Q38:   Which of the following drugs inhibits HMGCoA  reductase?

Probucol

Lovastatin

Cofibrate

Gemfibrozil

Correct Ans: B

Q39:   Which of the following drugs acts as an antihypertensive agent primarily by reduction of peripheral vascular resistance?

 Diltiazem

Clonidine

Verapamil

Amlodipine

Correct Ans: D

Q40:  ACE inhibitors are associated with high incidence of which of the following adverse reactions?

Hepatitis

Hypokalemia

Agranulocytosis

Proteinuria

Correct Ans: D

Q41:   If digoxin has a half life of 35 hrs how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic concentration of 2ng/ml?

17.5 hrs

70 hrs

105 hrs

140 hrs

Correct Ans: B

Q42:   The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by  the

Rate of blood flow  to the tissue

Stomach emptying time

Affinity of the drug to the tissue

Plasma protein binding of the drug.

Correct Ans: A

Q43:   For which of the following product, measuring plasma concentration is not appropriate for estimating bioequivalence?

Enteric coated tablet containing NSAID

Suspension formulation containing analgesics

Metered dose inhalers containing a bronchodilator

Sustained release tablet antihypertensive drug.

Correct Ans: C

Q44:   Which of the following compounded sterile product should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow  hood?

Total Parenteral Nutrition

Dopamine

Cisplatin

Nitroglycerin

Correct Ans: C

Q45:  Ezetimibe reduces cholesterol levels by

Inhibiting HMGCoA  Reductase

Blocking or inhibiting intestinal absorption of cholesterol

Removes cholesterol from blood and stores in adipose tissue

Inducing lipoprotein lipase

Correct Ans: B

Q46:  Amodiaquine, an antimalarial drug is synthesized from

Aniline

Anisole

Paracetamol

para nitrophenol

Correct Ans: C

Q47: The clearance of a I.V bolus injection in a patient weighing 50 kg  is 4.9 liters and elimination rate constant is 0.5 hrs. The volume of distribution per kg  of patient is

9.8 liters

98 liters

0.196 liters

0.98 liters

Correct Ans: C

Q48:  Cytarabine is a natural analogue of

4-dihydrocytidine

4-deoxycytidine

2-deoxycytidine

2-dihydrocytidine

Correct Ans: C

Q49:   The presence of electron withdrawing group on which position of phenothiazine is essential for its activity?

Second

Third

Fifth

Tenth

Correct Ans: A

Q50:   The elimination rate constant of a drug by  I.V bolus is 0.25 hrs. What is the half-life of the drug?

27.22 hrs

2.772 hrs

0.2772 hrs

2.772 min

Correct Ans: B

Q51:  Chloroquine is prepared by  condensing 4,7-dichloroquinoline with the following in phenol solution.

Pentamine

4 amino-1diethylaminopentane

Diethylamine

Hexamine

Correct Ans: B

Q52:   Which of the following solvent is not used in IR Spectroscopy?

CCl4

CS2

CHCl3

H2O

Correct Ans: D

Q53:   Drug of choice for filariasis is

Tinidazole

Piperazine

Diethylcarbamazine

Metronidazole

Correct Ans: C

Q54:   Which of the following solvents has least eluting power?

Cyclohexane

Ethyl ether

Carbon tetrachloride

n-propanol

Correct Ans: A

Q55:   The following is a potent inhibitor of CYP 450 enzymes

Cimetidine

Carbamazapine

Phenytoin

Phenobarbitone

Correct Ans: A

Q56:   The standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in

Schedule R

Schedule S

Schedule T

Schedule U

Correct Ans: A

Q57:  Benzidine test is used to detect

Glucose in urine

Blood in the urine

Albumin in serum

Uric acid in urine

Correct Ans: B

Q58:  What is the most commonly used mulling agent in IR Spectroscopy?

CHCL3

Nuzol

Butadiene

Chlorohexane

Correct Ans: B

Q59:   The overdose of atropine can be treated with

Deferoxamine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Vitamin C

Correct Ans: B

Q60:   The most important muscle useful for respiration is

Deltoid Muscle

Intercostal Muscle

Pectoralis major

Biceps

Correct Ans: B

Q61:   Diacetlyl morphine is

Codeine

Apomorphine

Heroin

Oxymorphine

Correct Ans: C

Q62:   The commonly used combination of preservatives for ophthalmic use is

Chlorobutanol and EDTA

Benzalkonium chloride and EDTA

Methy and propyl paraben

m-chlorocresol and methyl paraben

Correct Ans: B

Q63:   The colligative properties of a solution are related to the following

Number of ions present in the solution

Number of solute particles

pH  of the solution

Density of the solution

Correct Ans: B

Q64:   The following heterocyclic ring is present in mepacrine, an anti malarial drug

Pteridine

Phenothiazine

Acridine

Phthalazine

Correct Ans: C

Q65:  Mebendazole, an antigiradial agent, is a derivative of

Indoline

Benzimidazole

Indole acetic acid

Quinoline

Correct Ans: B

Q66:  Tranexemic acid is a

 Coagulant

 Anti coagulant

Anti fibrinolytic

 All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q67:  Caffeine is chemically

2,4,7-trimethyl xanthine

1,3,7-trimethyl xanthine

2,4,8-trimethyl xanthine

1,3,8-trimethyl xanthine

Correct Ans: B

Q68:  Dragendroff’s reagent used for testing alkaloids is a solution of

Potassium mercuric chloride

Silver Nitrate

Potassium bismuth iodide

Sodium Chloride

Correct Ans: C

Q69:  Prazosin is pharmacologically

a peripheral alpha-1 adrenergic blocker

An actibator of alpha 2 receptors

A beta blocker

An Angiotensin II Type I Receptor antagonist

Correct Ans: A

Q70:   Which anticonvulsant drug requires therapeutic monitoring of Phenobarbital serum levels as well as its own serum level?

Phenytoin

Primidone

Clonazepam

Ethotoin

Correct Ans: B

Q71:   The following is indicated as an adjunct to carbidopa/levodopa therapy:

Bromocriptine

Amantadine

Tolcapone

Pramipexole

Correct Ans: C

Q72:Which of the following disease modifying antirheumatic drugs can be administered orally?

Anakinra

Abatacept

Leflunomide

Etanercept

Correct Ans: C

Q73:   For manufacturing of drugs other than those specified in schedule c and c1 and X, the licence is issued in the prescribed form no

25 A

25 B

25

25 F

Correct Ans: C

Q74:   The antihypertensive drug that alters central sympathetic nervous system is

Propranolol

Clonidine

Nitroprusside

Captopril

Correct Ans: B

Q75:  Potentiometric analysis is possible to estimate drugs that have

Chromophore group

Oxidation-reduction potential

Azo  group only

Basic character

Correct Ans: B

Q76:   The Drug Technical Advisory Board is reconstituted in every

5 years

2 years

3 years

4 years

Correct Ans: C

Q77:   The HLB range for w/o emulsifying agent is

A     1-5

B      8-16

C             3-8

D     10-14

Correct Ans: C

Q78:   The following preservative is used in the simple syrup I.P

Methyl Paraben

Phenyl mercuric nitrate

Benzalkonium Chloride

None of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q79:  Acetaminophen toxicity is characterized by

Profound vasoconstriction and pain.

Severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea.

Central nervous system stimulation and seizures.

Profound liver damage and failure

Correct Ans: D

Q80:   The following insulin preparation has longest duration of action

Semilente

Protamine zinc

Lente

Isophane

Correct Ans: B

Q81:   Which district of Himachal Pradesh has the highest density of population (2011 census)?

Bilaspur

Una

Hamirpur

Solan

Correct Ans: C

Q82:  According to 2010-11 agriculture census  which district of Himachal Pradesh has the highest number of operational holdings?

Mandi

Kangra

Shimla

Una

Correct Ans: B

Q83:  According to 2011 census  which district of Himachal Pradesh has the highest rural literacy rate?

A     Una

B      Kangra

C             Hamirpur

D     Mandi

Correct Ans: C

Q84:   Which district of Himachal Pradesh has the highest number of Muslims (2011 census)?

Chamba

Bilaspur

Sirmour

Shimla

Correct Ans: C

Q85:   In which District of Himachal Pradesh is Kheerganga?

Shimla

Kullu

Chamba

Solan

Correct Ans: B

Q86:   Near which town of Mandi District of Himachal Pradesh is Kalasar lake?

Pandoh

Chauntra

Rewalsar

Karsog

Correct Ans: C

Q87:   In which district of Himachal Pradesh is Khokhan sanctuary?

Mandi

Kullu

Chamba

Una

Correct Ans: B

Q88:  Taleru Sports complex is situated in district of Himachal Pradesh.

 Bilaspur

Chamba

Mandi

Solan

Correct Ans: B

Q89:  To which region of Himachal Pradesh did  Satya Dev Bushahri belong?

Kumarsain

Rohru

Jubbal

Chopal

Correct Ans: B

Q90:  Whose autobiography is titled Looking  Back?

Narain Chand Prashar

Mohan Lal Aukta

Mehar Chand Mahajan

Kultar Chand Rana

Correct Ans: C

Q91:  Where is Indian Military Academy (IMA) located?

Bengaluru

Dehradun

Kharagvasla

Kochi

Correct Ans: B

Q92:   When was Rashtriya Madhyamic Shiksha Abhiyan launched?

2007

2008

2009

2010

Correct Ans: C

Q93:   When did  the new Bureau of Indian Standards Act come into force?

2014

2015

2016

2017

Correct Ans: D

Q94:  Adolescent girls of which age group are covered  under  Kishori Shakti Yojna?

9 to 16

10 to 17

11 to 18

12 to 20

Correct Ans: C

Q95:   Who headed the committee that recommended the de-regulation of sugar  sector  in India around 2013-14?

C. Rangarajan

Raghuram Rajan

C. Rangaswami

None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q96:  Around which year was declaration of independence adopted by  the U.S. Continental Congress  in Philadelphia?

1776

1789

1805

1809

Correct Ans: A

Q97:  What is the capital of Peru?

Lima

Warsaw

Manila

Doha

Correct Ans: A

Q98:  With which game  is Cristiano Ronaldo associated?

Hockey

Cricket

Tennis

Football

Correct Ans: D

Q99:   Earth Day is observed on April   

  1. 22 january
  2. 22 March
  3. 22 April
  4. 22 may      .

Correct Ans: 3

Q100: Which city of the world is known as the Windy City?

Chicago

London

Washington

Paris Correct

Ans: A

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